Answers
Answer:
Health care personnel caring for patients on Contact Precautions must wear a gown and gloves for all interactions that involve contact with the patient and the patient environment. PPE should be donned prior to room entry and doffed at the point of exit.
Explanation:
Related Questions
Katie’s BMI decreased from 17 to 16. What does this tell her doctor about her health?
Answers
Answer:
She's become even more underweight, because a healthy BMI ranges from 18.5 to 24.9
The trigeminal nerve is larger than the trochlear nerve. How does this correlate with the function of both nerves?
Answers
The size difference between the trigeminal nerve and the trochlear nerve correlates with their respective functions: the trigeminal nerve has broader sensory and motor functions, while the trochlear nerve has a more specific motor function.
The trigeminal nerve, also known as cranial nerve V, is the largest cranial nerve and has both sensory and motor functions. It is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the face, including touch, pain, and temperature sensations. Additionally, it controls the muscles involved in chewing and biting.
On the other hand, the trochlear nerve, or cranial nerve IV, is the smallest cranial nerve in terms of the number of fibers. It primarily has a motor function, specifically controlling the superior oblique muscle of the eye, which is responsible for downward and inward eye movements.
The size difference between these two nerves reflects their functional differences. The broader range of functions performed by the trigeminal nerve requires a larger number of nerve fibers, resulting in its larger size. In contrast, the more specific motor function of the trochlear nerve requires fewer nerve fibers, resulting in its smaller size.
Understanding the anatomical and functional differences between cranial nerves helps in diagnosing and treating conditions affecting these nerves and their associated functions.
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Secrete bicarbonate ions into the tubular fluid. During water intoxication, dangerous symptoms result from water flowing. From the ECF into the ICF.
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The kidneys secrete bicarbonate ions into the tubular fluid to maintain the acid-base balance of the body. Water intoxication, on the other hand, results from an excessive intake of water that leads to a low sodium concentration in the ECF. This causes water to flow from the ECF into the ICF, resulting in cell swelling and potentially dangerous symptoms.
It's important to understand how the kidneys secrete bicarbonate ions into the tubular fluid and the consequences of water intoxication. The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining the acid-base balance of the body. They do this by secreting bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) into the tubular fluid. This process occurs primarily in the proximal convoluted tubule, where HCO3- is reabsorbed from the filtrate, and hydrogen ions (H+) are secreted into the tubular fluid. In exchange, bicarbonate ions are transported back into the blood to maintain a stable pH.Water intoxication, also known as hyponatremia, occurs when there is an excessive intake of water, leading to a low concentration of sodium (Na+) in the extracellular fluid (ECF). This imbalance results in water flowing from the ECF into the intracellular fluid (ICF) due to osmosis. Cells swell as a consequence, and this can lead to dangerous symptoms, including headache, nausea, seizures, and even coma or death in severe cases.In summary, the kidneys secrete bicarbonate ions into the tubular fluid to maintain the acid-base balance of the body. Water intoxication, on the other hand, results from an excessive intake of water that leads to a low sodium concentration in the ECF. This causes water to flow from the ECF into the ICF, resulting in cell swelling and potentially dangerous symptoms.For more such question on kidneys
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1. People become infected with MRSA mainly in the hospital. What other way might you become infected? Can you think of an example?
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Why does coding for laboratory testing change so frequently?
Answers
Answer:
As the designated standard for the electronic reporting of physician and other health care professional services under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), CPT codes are updated annually and effective for use on Jan. 1 of each year.
Explanation:
Codes for laboratory testing must change due to several reasons:
Codes for laboratory testing changes very frequently because they are updated as often as a new model is formed. When an existing model is modified, its codes must change as well. A lab code is generated when a new model is created and becomes part of that model's nomenclature.One example of a laboratory coding system that is universally accepted in the private practice circle of Medical practice in America is the CPT codes. CPT stands for Current Procedural Terminology.So about why the CPT could be revised often, In 2021, the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes were heavily revamped by the American Medical Association (AMA) in concert with the (CPT) Editorial Panel, the RVS Update Committee (RUC). The consortium stipulated that revisions to the CPT code will now be made annually. This move is the first of its kind in over 30 years of Americal Medical History.The primary purpose for the revision was to ensure the simplicity of requirements, restore clinical relevance to the codes, and trim down on the volume of documentation required per se.Another example of Laboratory test codes is the Logical Observation Identifiers Names and Codes (LOINC®). This is the preferred standard adopted by the U.S. Federal Government to ease the facilitation of the exchange of clinical health information electronically. It also serves the purpose of ensuring universality, reducing ambiguity concerning the identification of things that can be measured or observedLOINC is revised even more frequently than CPT. Revision of LOINC takes place every biannually in June and December.For more about laboratory codes, please see the following link:
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A daily energy expenditure of 350 calories through physical activity is the equivalent of approximately ______ pounds of fat per year.
Answers
There will be loss of 36.5 pounds of fat per year.
The calculations will be done using unitary method. As per the known fact, 1 pound is equivalent to 3500 calories. We also know that a year has 365 days.
So, amount of pounds equivalent to 350 calories = \(\frac{350*1}{3500}\)
Performing multiplication and division to find amount of pounds
Amount of pounds equivalent to 350 calories = 0.1 pounds
Now, there is loss of 0.1 pound in a day. So, calculating the loss of pounds in a year.
Thus, loss of pounds in a year is 0.1*365
Performing multiplication to find loss of pounds
Loss of pounds in a year = 36.5 pounds
Thus, there will be loss of 36.5 pounds of fat per year.
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A 27 year old female patient with a long history of diabetes mellitus present to the office for her annual physical and to go over the results of her blood work the doctor
Answers
Answer: The patient’s complaints of increased hunger and urination are indicative of diabetes, and the loss of vision in the periphery can result from uncontrolled diabetes
Had to complete the question before answering.
A 27 year old female patient with a long history of diabetes mellitus presents to the office for her annual physical and to go over the results of her blood work with the doctor. During the patient history section of the examination, the patient states that she has been experiencing increased hunger, urination frequency, and heartburn. In addition, she has noticed that when driving, the cars next to her are tougher for her to see. She also states that her neck and shoulders are tight and achy. The blood work comes back with the following results:
Fasting Glucose: 108mg/dl
HgbA1c: 8.0%
Chloride: 115 mEq/L
Potassium: 5.9 mEq/L
Sodium: 155 mEq/L
Calcium: 8.9mg/dl
Magnesium: 1.5 mg/dl
Phosphorus: 5.1 mg/d
EXPLANATION:
The patients blood sugar are above the recommended level or target range. Which has led to the patient experiencing symptoms of increased hunger, urination frequency, heart attack, the patient’s complaints of increased hunger and urination are indicative or signs of diabetes, and the loss of vision in the periphery is a result from an uncontrolled diabetes.
What part of the humerus articulates with the scapula to form the shoulder joint
Answers
The shoulder joint is formed by the humerus head articulating with the glenoid cavity of the scapulae.
What is glenoid cavity?The glenoid cavity is located in the scapula, also known as the shoulder blade. The humeral head is held in place by a ball and socket joint in the glenoid cavity.
It has a shallow cavity called the glenoid cavity, which articulates with the head of the upper arm bone, the humerus, to form the shoulder joint.
The coracoid process, a beaklike projection that overhangs the glenoid cavity, completes the shoulder socket.
The glenohumeral joint is chiefly renowned to as the shoulder joint. A ball or head at the top of the humerus fits into a shallow cuplike socket or glenoid in the scapula, allowing for a wide range of motion.
Thus, the humerus head articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapulae to form the shoulder joint.
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a rice cooker was sold for $60 after a discount of 60% waht was the usual price of the rice cooker
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Jackie was given 20 mg of drug x to determine if there would be a 25 percent reduction in her depressive symptoms. the dependent variable is?
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Answer: The dependent variable is how she does once she is given the drug x.
Explanation:
The dependent variable is what happens when the independent variable is used to manipulate the situation. Think of it as cause and effect. The independent variable is the cause, and the dependent variable is the effect.
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List 5 tasks for answering incoming phone calls in the medical field
Answers
Answer:
by not receiving call you have to switch off you phone.
Which disease or disorder occurs when the pancreas stops producing insulin?
gestational diabetes
type 1 diabetes
hypothyroidism
hyperthyroidism
Answers
Answer:
type 1 diabetes.......
which health education topic is the priority when teaching parents ways to prevent urinary tract infections (utis) in their children?
Answers
The health education topic that should be priority when teaching parents ways to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs) in their children is to teach parents to promote adequate fluid intake since excessive or faulty liquids may lead to complications.
What are urinary tract infections?Urinary tract infections or UTIs may be defined as different diseases and medical conditions associated with faulty functioning of the excretory system which main organs are the kidneys responsible to filter liquid to remove waste products through the urine, which is a liquid that contains urea as a product of metabolic activities made during the process of cellular respiration by the cells of the body and related physiological processes.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that urinary tract infection or UTIs is associated with faulty functions in the excretory system and its organs such as the kidneys that filter liquids.
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Mediation can teach you how to get rid of negative thoughts all together.
True
False
Answers
Answer:True
Explanation:
What is diagnostics? The field of identifying the best treatment for a person's disease, disorder, or injury the field of identifying the specifics of a patient's disease, disorder, or injury the field of computer technology that has made it easier to identify health problems the field of laboratory science that analyzes blood and urine samples
Answers
Explanation:
the field of identifying the specifics of a patient's disease, disorder, or injury
A diagnostics is the field of identifying the specifics of a patient's disease, disorder, or injury. The correct option is B.
What are the types of diagnostics?Diagnostic testing is typically used to detect, diagnose, and track disease symptoms and progression.
To make the best use of diagnostic testing, doctors must first understand how the results of the tests affect the likelihood that a disease exists.
Diagnostic research is typically concerned with estimating the sensitivity and specificity of individual diagnostic tests, as well as their predictive values and other parameters of interest.
The following are examples of diagnostic tests.
Biopsy. A biopsy aids a doctor in the diagnosis of a medical condition.Colonoscopy.CAT scanRadiation exposure and CT scans in children and adolescentsElectrocardiogram (ECG) (ECG).Electroencephalogram (EEG) (EEG).Gastroscopy.Eye examinationsThus, the correct option is B.
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All of the following would be an example of the cognitive component of anxiety, EXCEPT:
a. worrying
O b. fearing loss of control
O c. avoiding a situation
O d. becoming extremely wary of people and events
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Answer:
D. I think is the answer.
Explanation:
what is the common name for Proctalgia Fugax?
Answers
explain four activities of a cell
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Answer: Each cell can take in nutrients, convert these nutrients into energy, carry out specialized functions, and reproduce as necessary.
An osmotic diuretic such as mannitol is given to the client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) to
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An osmotic diuretic such as mannitol is given to the client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) to dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema.
One's skull may experience increasing pressure as a result of a brain injury or another medical issue. Increased intracranial pressure, or ICP for short, is a risky condition that can cause headaches. One's brain or spinal cord may possibly suffer additional damage from the pressure. The amount of brain and extracellular fluid is decreased by osmotic diuretics by drawing water across intact membranes. The patient with IICP is given antipyretics and a cooling blanket to reduce fever. Mannitol is a form of diuretic, but its purpose is not to make you pee more. To lessen the demands on cellular metabolism, medications such as barbiturates are administered to patients with IICP.
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The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube and chest drainage system. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to implement
Answers
Clamp the chest tubes when suctioning action is most appropriate for the nurse to implement.
Which should the nurse do when caring for a client with a chest tube attached to a chest drainage system?
Never lift drain above chest levelNever lift drain above chest level.The unit and all tubing should be below patient's chest level to facilitate drainage.Tubing should have no kinks or obstructions that may inhibit drainage.Ensure all connections between chest tubes and drainage unit are tight and secure.What steps should you take to ensure that chest tube drainage system is functioning properly?
Apply pressure to the area where the chest tube will be inserted as soon as possible, then cover the area with sterile gauze or a sterile Jelonet gauze and dry dressing to ensure a tight seal. When the patient exhales, clothe them. Call a code if the patient experiences respiratory distress.Learn more about drainage system
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what are some of the purposes of a post-mortem? check all that apply.
a. To learn from and adapt processes for higher efficiency
b. to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them
c. to foster a culture where it's ok to make mistakes
Answers
The purpose of post-moterm is to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them.
A post-moterm, which is also called an autopsy an examination of the body done after the passing of the individual.
When the post-moterm of a body is done, it gives us a brief understanding of what went wrong in the body and what was the cause of the death or how did the death caused.
By learning about how and what happened, we can understand the causes of the mistakes and we can prevent them in future.
A major experiments and crucial information is obtained from the post-moterm report of the body. This useful information is used in future to make medicines and surgical methods.
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Given a 20% w/v solution of chlorhexidine gluconate, what volume is required to make 400 mL of a 2% w/v solution?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
A 2% w/v solution contains 2 g in 100 mL, or 8 g in 400 mL.
What would happen if Portia told Ms. Hilbert that her visit today will be covered 100 percent by her insurance company, based on what she learned about Mr. Campbell’s insurance with the same company?
Answers
If Portia told Ms. Hilbert that her visit today will be covered 100 percent by her insurance company it is attainable for Portia Milstine the MA (Medical Assisstant) at the front table to commit miscalculation of faulty categorization by presumptuous that Mrs. Hilbert's edges are identical as that of Josiah Campbell.
The fact that they're colleagues within the same place of labor, with an equivalent form of card doesn't mean that they need an equivalent medical cowl or health advantages.
Should the caregiver proceed to bill Mrs. David Hilbert on an equivalent basis, as Mr. Josiah, she would be committing a charge error. There are different varieties of billing errors that are common among medical assistants. They are:
Wrong Patient information
Duplicate billing
Balance billing
The question is incomplete, complete question is here
Patient Kenya Hilbert arrives for an appointment and gives the medical assistant, Portia Milstine, MA, her insurance card. Portia notices that the insurance company is Healthy Way Insurance and that Ms. Hilbert works for the Exact Accounting Company, a large company near the medical clinic. She recalls that this morning Josiah Campbell came in and that he also had Healthy Way Insurance and also works for the Exact Accounting Company. When she verified his benefits, she learned that preventive care is covered at 100 percent, and for other services, patients must pay a $20.00 copayment. The office is busy this afternoon, so Portia wonders if she really needs to take the time to verify the benefits for Ms. Hilbert. After all, it looks like she has the exact same insurance that Mr. Campbell had, and she already verified his benefits.
What would happen if Portia told Ms. Hilbert that her visit today will be covered 100 percent by her insurance company, based on what she learned about Mr. Campbell’s insurance with the same company?
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The physician is considering prescribing an anti-tumor necrosis factor (TNF) like
infliximab for a rheumatoid arthritis patient. Which of the following statements is
accurate about the advantages of using a TNF inhibitor?
A) "Since TNF inhibitors have few side effects, these drugs will fit well into your
regimen."
B) "Your disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) methotrexate has more
cardiovascular side effects than TNF inhibitors."
C) "TNF inhibitors help slow the disease progression and improve your ability to
perform routine ADL functions."
D) "Not only do TNF inhibitors control your disease better but they also will
interrupt the inflammatory cascade at several levels."
Answers
The accurate statement is C) "TNF inhibitors help slow the disease progression and improve your ability to perform routine ADL functions."
TNF inhibitors are a class of medications that target tumor necrosis factor, a cytokine involved in the inflammatory process. By inhibiting TNF, these medications can help reduce inflammation, pain, and swelling in rheumatoid arthritis.
While TNF inhibitors can be effective in managing rheumatoid arthritis, they are not without side effects. The statement A is incorrect because TNF inhibitors can have side effects, including an increased risk of infections, infusion reactions, and potential impact on other organs.
The statement B is also incorrect because methotrexate, a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD), does not necessarily have more cardiovascular side effects compared to TNF inhibitors.
The statement D is inaccurate because while TNF inhibitors can control the disease and reduce inflammation, they primarily target the TNF pathway rather than interrupting the inflammatory cascade at multiple levels.
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drugs that block pain by numbing the skin are associated with
Answers
Topical anesthetics can provide temporary pain relief by numbing the skin, it is important to be cautious of potential skin reactions, allergies, and the risk of systemic absorption. Following proper usage guidelines is crucial to minimize any associated risks.
Drugs that block pain by numbing the skin are commonly referred to as topical anesthetics. These medications work by inhibiting the transmission of pain signals from the skin to the brain, providing temporary relief from pain and discomfort. While they are generally safe when used as directed, there are a few associated considerations to keep in mind.
Firstly, topical anesthetics can cause skin reactions or allergies in some individuals. It is important to perform a patch test before applying them to a larger area to check for any adverse reactions.
Additionally, excessive or prolonged use of topical anesthetics can lead to systemic absorption, especially if applied to large areas or broken skin. This can potentially result in side effects such as dizziness, confusion, nausea, or even toxic reactions. It is crucial to follow the recommended dosage and duration of use provided by healthcare professionals or stated on the product label.
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Drugs Manufacturing the Naming
Recalling the Naming Process
How is the chemical name of a drug assigned?
a. The name describes the format of the drug, and is assigned by the FDA.
b. The name describes its chemical structure, and is assigned by IUPAC.
c. The name is identified by the drug manufacturer, and is a trade name.
d. The name is identified by the manufacturer and the USAN Counsel.
Answers
Answer:
B. The name describes its chemical structure, and is assigned by IUPAC.
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Answer:
b. the name describes the chemical structure, and is assigned by IUPAC
Explanation:
chemical name of a drug is describing it's chemical structure.
Which is the primary method used to measure the existence of states of health or illness in a population during a given time period? a) rate b) ratio c) relative risk ratio d) sensitivity.
Answers
Answer:
A.rate
Explanation:
The contractions of a client who is receiving tocolytic therapy stop at 4 pm. The nurse would expect to continue to administer the drug infusion for at least which time frame?
Answers
The contractions of a client who is receiving tocolytic therapy stop at 4 pm. The nurse would expect to continue to administer the drug infusion for at least after 12 hours.
What is the mechanism of action of tocolytics?Tocolytic medicines lower intracellular calcium concentrations in myometrial cells, which stimulates cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP), which subsequently directly suppresses prostaglandin synthesis or the oxytocin receptor.
What are the goals of tocolytic therapy?Preterm birth outcomes are closely related to gestational age at delivery. Tocolytic therapy aims to reduce newborn morbidity and mortality by delaying delivery to allow for corticosteroid administration and/or safe transport to a tertiary-care center.
During which period is a tocolytic drug usually administered?Tocolytic drugs are not utilized for preterm labor before 24 weeks of pregnancy. In some cases, your doctor may prescribe it while you are 23 weeks pregnant. Many doctors cease giving tocolytics once a woman reaches her 34th week of pregnancy, although some start them as late as 36 weeks.
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Discuss normality and abnormality of sex orientation among children and adolescents in a school context.
Answers
Sexual orientation is a complex aspect of human development that involves the individual's romantic, emotional, and sexual attraction to others. In children and adolescents, sexual orientation is still in the process of development and can be influenced by a variety of factors, including genetics, environment, and personal experiences.
Normality and abnormality of sexual orientation in children and adolescents should not be judged based on societal norms or stereotypes. It is essential to recognize that sexual orientation is a natural aspect of human diversity, and there is no one "normal" or "abnormal" sexual orientation. All sexual orientations, including heterosexuality, homosexuality, and bisexuality, are normal and valid.
In a school context, it is crucial to provide a safe and inclusive environment that respects the diversity of sexual orientations. Schools should provide comprehensive sexuality education that includes information about sexual orientation and gender identity to help students understand and respect each other's differences.
It is also essential to address discrimination and harassment based on sexual orientation or gender identity in schools. Teachers and staff should be trained on how to create a safe and inclusive environment for all students, regardless of their sexual orientation or gender identity.
Parents and caregivers can also play a crucial role in supporting their children's sexual orientation. They can provide a safe and supportive environment for their children to explore and express their sexual orientation without fear of rejection or discrimination.
In conclusion, sexual orientation in children and adolescents is a normal aspect of human diversity and should be respected and valued. Creating a safe and inclusive environment in schools and at home can help support the healthy development of children and adolescents, regardless of their sexual orientation.
a client presents to the health care clinic and reports a recent onset of a persistent cough. the client denies any shortness of breath, change in activity level, or other findings of an acute upper respiratory tract illness. what question by the nurse is most appropriate to further assess the cause for the cough?
Answers
The nurse should ask the client, "Are you taking any medications on a regular basis?" to further assess the cause of the cough.
A persistent cough is a type of cough that lasts longer than a typical acute cough, typically lasting 8 weeks or longer. Common symptoms associated with persistent cough include difficulty breathing, chest pain, fatigue, and increased production of mucus.
Persistent cough without other respiratory symptoms may be associated with new drugs prescribed for hypertension, particularly beta-blockers or angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.
Dietary changes and exercise are healthy behaviors that don't cause a persistent cough. Stress often causes shortness of breath.
Your question is incomplete. The completed version should be as follows:
A client presents to the health care clinic and reports a recent onset of a persistent cough. The client denies any shortness of breath, change in activity level, or other findings of an acute upper respiratory tract illness. What question by the nurse is most appropriate to further assess the cause for the cough?
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