An example of a STAT medication order is "Acetaminophen 650 mg PO when Temperature is > 38°C."
This type of medication order is used for a patient who needs immediate treatment for a specific condition, such as fever. The term "STAT" stands for "immediately" or "urgent," indicating that the medication should be given as soon as possible. In this particular medication order, the acetaminophen is prescribed to be given orally at a dose of 650 mg when the patient's temperature is greater than 38°C, indicating a fever. This medication is commonly used to treat fever and relieve pain.
It is important to note that a STAT medication order should only be used in emergency situations or when a patient's condition requires immediate treatment. Other medication orders, such as "po qhs" (by mouth every night), "IV for severe pain" or "1 tablet po qhs" are not considered STAT orders as they do not require immediate attention. Overall, STAT medication orders are important tools in healthcare that help ensure patients receive the necessary treatment in a timely manner. These orders should be used judiciously and only when necessary to prevent potential harm to patients.
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Because there is no medicinal reason to use a
drug, there are legal consequences for using or possessing these drugs.
drugs have a limited risk of addiction or abuse, such as some drugs for epilepsy or coughs.
Because
drugs, such as painkillers, can be very addictive, these drugs require the close supervision of a physician.
drugs are moderately addictive and have a fairly limited potential for abuse.
are controlled substances that have a specific level of regulation that reflects that they are moderately to highly addictive.
Answer:
Because
drugs, such as painkillers, can be very addictive, these drugs require the close supervision of a physician.
Explanation:
The above stated statement is one of the legal reasons or consequences for using or possessing drugs. In the case of the painkillers, the addictive nature of it is part of the reason why it cannot be bought across the counter without the doctor's prescription.
The patient underwent a single-contrast upper GI series on Tuesday. The request form noted severe esophageal burning daily for the past six weeks. The radiology impression was Barrett's esophagus.
Day of Encounter:
Diagnosis Code:
Procedure Code:
Answer:
In a patient underwent a single contrast upper GI series on Tuesday due to severe daily esophageal burning for six weeks, whose radiological diagnostic impression was Barrett's esophagus.
Day of encounter: Tuesday Diagnosis Code: K 22.7 (CIE-10 code for Barrett's Esophagus) Procedure Code: 74240Explanation:
Barrett's esophagus is a clinical condition characterized by a change in the esophageal epithelium due to repeated exposure to gastric juices, by reflux, or other mucosal irritants.
Corrosive agents are considered to produce a change in the epithelium called metaplasia, associated with symptoms of esophageal burning and pain.
The ICD-10 code for Barrett's esophagus is K 22.7.
The procedure, which consists of a radiological examination of the upper digestive tract with the use of barium contrast has a code of 74240, which describes this type of radiological examination.
For a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following nursing actions can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
a. Assessing the patient for jaundice
b. Providing oral hygiene after a meal
c. Palpating the abdomen for distention
d. Assisting the patient to choose the diet
For a patient with cirrhosis, For a patient with cirrhosis, is a nursing actions that the registered nurse (RN) can delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). The correct option is b).
a. Assessing the patient for jaundice: Assessing for jaundice involves observing the yellowing of the skin and eyes, which requires clinical judgment and knowledge to recognize. This task is best performed by the registered nurse (RN) who can interpret and analyze the findings accurately. Therefore, it would not be appropriate to delegate this task to a UAP.
b. Providing oral hygiene after a meal: Providing oral hygiene after a meal is within the scope of practice for a UAP. It involves assisting the patient with brushing their teeth, cleaning their mouth, and maintaining oral hygiene. The UAP can perform this task under the supervision and guidance of the RN.
c. Palpating the abdomen for distention: Palpating the abdomen for distention requires the ability to recognize abnormal findings and interpret them in the context of the patient's condition. This task requires advanced assessment skills and clinical judgment, making it more appropriate for an RN to perform.
d. Assisting the patient to choose the diet: Assisting the patient in choosing a diet involves providing education, guidance, and considering the patient's dietary restrictions and individual needs. This task requires knowledge of the patient's condition and appropriate diet recommendations. Therefore, it is best performed by the RN.
In summary, the nursing action that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a patient with cirrhosis is providing oral hygiene after a meal. Tasks that involve assessment, clinical judgment, and decision-making, such as assessing for jaundice, palpating the abdomen, and assisting with diet choices, are best performed by the registered nurse (RN). Hence option b) is the answer.
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1. given that ventilation–perfusion is gravity dependent, how does your body position affect where the greatest volume of ventilation–perfusion occurs?
Ventilation–perfusion is gravity dependent, so your body position can impact where the greatest volume of ventilation–perfusion occurs. When an individual is standing up, the lung's blood vessels in the lower areas of the lungs receive more blood.
As a result, a greater volume of ventilation-perfusion takes place in the lower sections of the lungs because of the higher blood supply. Ventilation is the process of moving air into and out of the lungs.
Perfusion is the process of providing blood to the body's tissues. Ventilation-perfusion refers to the balance between these two processes in the lungs. It's essential to ensure that the blood is oxygenated and that carbon dioxide is removed.
When we inhale, air enters the body and oxygen passes through the lungs' alveoli into the bloodstream. The blood then transports oxygen to the body's tissues and removes carbon dioxide. The amount of blood flowing to each area of the lungs can change depending on body position. This can impact ventilation-perfusion.
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Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
The answer to the task given above about a client instructions which would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure is bed rest
The correct answer choice is option a.
Why resting on bed would not be followed by dental procedureFrom the task given above, such as chewing exercise requires a dentist to perform certain assessment. But when a patient is on bed rest, it does not necessarily means that a dental surgical procedure would be observed as dental procedure and assessment can be done even while standing or in a sitting position.
So therefore, it can be deduced that a patient in a hospital bed rest is not an instruction which is immediately after a dental process.
Complete question:
Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
a. Bed rest
b. Chewing exercises
c. Taking an antibiotic
d. Clear liquid diet.
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the world's first genetically engineered pharmaceutical product was ________.
What are some helpful points to give parents to help them talk with their child
who may stutter or is at risk for stuttering? What are some things to do and
somethings to avoid?
Please help and be honest :)
Answer:
Don't rush your child. That will just make them feel pressured as they are trying their best.
One of the more effective ways to stop a stutter is to talk slowly. Rushing to complete thoughts can cause you to stammer, speed up your speech, or have trouble getting the words out. Taking a few deep breaths and speaking slowly can help control the stutter.
Help them to breathe if they are having trouble.
And if kids at school are just making things worse, tell them that you are here for them. Reassurance helps their mental wellbeing a lot.
Don't do things without telling them. Especially if it includes them to speak. They might not be comfortable speaking in front of their friends even, so don't pressure them to be in front of audiences.
Explanation:
no explanation :)
Which of the following does NOT describe actions of interferon IFN?
a. Virally infected cells can release interferon which attracts natural killer cells to attack and kill the IFN secreting cell.
b. IFN binds to normal uninfected cells stimulating the activation of genes that produce anti-viral proteins.
c. IFN will attract macrophages to the secreting cell to be removed by phagocytosis.
d. IFN can penetrate the viral capsid and destroy the virus.
The answer is d. IFN cannot penetrate the viral capsid and destroy the virus. Instead, IFN acts by binding to normal uninfected cells and stimulating the activation of genes that produce anti-viral proteins.
which help prevent the virus from entering the cell or replicating inside the cell. Additionally, virally infected cells can release interferon which attracts natural killer cells to attack and kill the IFN-secreting cell, and IFN can also attract macrophages to the secreting cell to be removed by phagocytosis.
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What is an example of clear communication? Check all that apply. Mr. Johns is complaining of a sharp pain in the upper-left side of his chest. Mr. Amara has some bleeding from a cut. Mrs. Shehab is reporting pain in her lower lumbar region. Ms. Patela is complaining of discomfort and pain. Miss Glassman feels numb.
Answer:
Mr. Johns and Mrs. Shehab
Explanation:
They both have clear chief complaints. Pain and location
Use the drop-down menu to select the answer that completes each sentence.Health Information Management professionals may choose to get a credential from.is the organization that oversees Medicare and Medicaid.EHR products are certified for effectiveness by.is an organization that provides recommendations on how to manage information technology.Themakes recommendations about healthcare policies
The above sentences indicate:
Health Information Management professionals may choose to get a credential from AHIMACMS is the organization that oversees Medicare and MedicaidEHR products are certified for effectiveness by CCHITHIMSS is an organization that provides recommendations on how to manage information technology.IOM makes recommendations about healthcare policiesLearn more in:
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Answer:
C, A, B, D, D
Explanation:
Good luck <3
When should EMT calculate gcs
Answer:
En route to the hospital
Explanation:
the combining form that means cause (of disease) is
The combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is etiology.
The term "etiology" is a noun form that denotes the study of causes of diseases.
Etiology refers to the study of the causes of diseases. It encompasses the factors that lead to the development of a disease, including genetic, environmental, social, and behavioral factors. Etiology has a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases.
It is fundamental in identifying risk factors that can be modified or managed to prevent disease and promote good health. Etiology is also important in the development of new treatments and therapies for diseases.
The combining form eti/o derives from the Greek word aitia, which means "cause." Eti/o is a common prefix used in medical terminology. Other terms that use the eti/o prefix include etiology (the study of the causes of diseases), etiopathogenesis (the study of the causes and development of diseases), and etiologic agent (the cause of a disease).
Thus, the combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is eti/o.
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For five different organ systems in the human body, identify a specialized cell type found in that system.
Neurons, muscle cells, red blood cells, sperm cells, and leukocytes are the five different kinds of specialized cells found in the body.
What are specialized cells?
Microscale cells make up the human body. Together, these elements of life act harmoniously to create the human body. While numerous cells make up basic biological components like tissues, some perform more difficult and specialized activities.
These specialized cells have been carefully created to carry out the tasks for which they were created. The distinct ways that each of these cell types is created and functions make it possible for the cell to perform the specific bodily function for which it was designed.
Within the human brain, neurons are specialized cells that convey messages. These cells are available in a variety of sizes and forms. While these cells do have certain characteristics in common with other cells, they also possess unique traits that allow them to carry out the required communication duties.
Movement is made possible by muscle cells. The banded fibers that make up these cylindrical cells enable contraction.
Red blood cells transport oxygen throughout the body, supplying it to organs that need this vital gas. These cells lack a number of components that are typically seen in cells, including as mitochondria and a nucleus.
In order to reproduce as humans, specialized sperm cells are required. The nucleus makes up the majority of these cells.
Leukocyte cells function to prevent infections in the human body. When an infection occurs, these cells locate and eliminate germs within the body.
Therefore, Neurons, muscle cells, red blood cells, sperm cells, and leukocytes are the five different kinds of specialized cells found in the body.
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Gavin would like to apply the gate-control theory of pain to reduce his experience of pain following a sports injury. Which of the following could he do?
Group of answer choices
Answer: Increase Sensory Input (Rubbing, Touching, Feeling Cold Water etc) At the injury location
Explanation: The gate-control theory suggests that pain is sent through the spinal cord to the brain and along with sensory information, there are certain times where pain should be felt more than sensory inputs and vice versa. This comes into play when we talk about the 'gates,' or areas where the spinal cord and brain decide that pain or sensory input should be filtered out or enhanced. If the sensory information and pain information travel at the same time, it is thought that enough sensory information could lessen the feeling of pain; this is thought to be the cause of rubbing a scrapped knee or injury when we fall.
Anyways, since the choices weren't given, just know that any amount of sensory input near the injury location will reduce Gavin's experience of pain, according to the gate-control theory. I hoped this helped!
a patient has had surgery to create an ileal conduit for urinary diversion. what is a priority intervention by the nurse in the postoperative phase of care?
Urine production should be checked hourly and reported if it is less than 30 mL/hr is a priority intervention by the nurse in the postoperative phase of care.
A urinary diversion enables urine to leave your body following a radical cystectomy. A stoma is made in the abdomen and is attached to one end of a short section of the small intestine that has been separated from the remainder of the intestine to produce an ileal conduit.
A little pouch called an ileal conduit is where urine is stored. It was generated surgically from a tiny portion of the gut (intestine). A 6- to 8-inch section of the ileum, the lowest portion of the small intestine that connects to the large intestine, is removed to create an ileal conduit (colon).
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What is a the gram stain test?
Answer:
its a method of stainging used to distinguish and classify bacterial species into two large groups
ginger Williams has pain in her heel caused by a calcium deposit. This calcium deposit is known as a
Answer:
it's known as a heels spur
What do we call the moral obligation of physicians to make patients fully aware of treatment options, risks, and benefits before letting the patient make the final decision?
1. therapeutic privilege;
2. informed consent;
3. doctor-patient confidentiality;
4. the Hippocratic Oath.
A group of nursing students are reviewing information about the transmission of tuberculosis. The students demonstrate understanding when they state transmission occurs from person to person in which manner?
Answer:
Exposure to droplets emitted by the cough of an infected person
Explanation:
Pulmonary tuberculosis is produced by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is a contagious disease that can be transmitted between individuals by the inhalation of airborne particles released by the cough of individuals with tuberculosis. Consequently, M. tuberculosis is transmitted person-to-person by inhalation of aerosolized bacterium droplets.
The immune system fight against tuberculosis infection by producing inflammatory responses in the lungs, this being an innate response that involves immune cells such as dendritic cells, macrophages, monocytes, and neutrophils.
a patient is anxious about an operation schheduled for the next day which intervention would the nurse use to decrease the patient
The nurse can be affectionate towards the patient, answer their queries, recovery process, and the surgical methods so as to calm down the patient, which means option 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
It is very common for the patient to feel anxious before undergoing any surgical procedure and it is mainly because they fear the rate of success of the operation. It is important that the nurse in such cases remain positive and assures the patient about all the questions that they might have about the surgery procedures. It is because more the calm mind of the patient will be, more the body will respond better to the surgery and not cause any complication to the patient. The patient can be made surgery prepared by music, fulfilling hobbies, dance and some light moments which cherished their mind.
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Refer to complete question below:
A patient is anxious about an operation scheduled for the next day. The nurse identifies that the patient is anxious. Which interventions does the nurse use to decrease the patient's anxiety related to surgery? Select all that apply.
1 Provide satisfactory answers to the patient's questions.
2 Instruct the patient to perform range-of-motion exercises.
3 Provide detailed instructions about the recovery process.
4 Provide detailed instructions about the surgical procedure.
5 Provide detailed instructions about discharge planning
a nurse is required to administer a parenteral form of penicillin to a client. which intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to do when preparing penicillin in parenteral form?
The intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to do when preparing penicillin in parenteral form as imbalanced nutrition, Less Than body requirements is the nurse's top priority for this patient.
What is penicillin?Penicillin has been considered as an antibiotic discovered by the Alexander Fleming in 1928. This discovery would be changed the way injuries has been treated and would also become one of the major advancements to the scientific or medical world.
The discovery of this medicine, such practices could be prevented. Instead, the newly discovered drug helped in preventing infections and would become the main treatment of injuries and wounds.
Therefore, The intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to do when preparing penicillin in parenteral form as imbalanced nutrition, Less Than body requirements is the nurse's top priority for this patient.
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A nurse is assisting a client with personal hygiene care. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of infection?
The nurse should practice proper hand hygiene to reduce the risk of infection during personal hygiene care.
Hand hygiene is a crucial infection control measure that healthcare professionals, including nurses, must follow to prevent the transmission of harmful microorganisms. When assisting a client with personal hygiene care, the nurse should prioritize hand hygiene before and after the procedure.
Proper hand hygiene involves washing hands with soap and water for at least 20 seconds or using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer if soap and water are not readily available. This practice helps remove dirt, germs, and transient microorganisms from the hands, reducing the risk of infection transmission.
During personal hygiene care, the nurse should also use appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) such as gloves, masks, and gowns, as necessary, to further prevent the spread of infection. Adhering to standard precautions and following infection control protocols, including proper disposal of waste and cleaning equipment, are additional measures that can reduce the risk of infection during personal hygiene care.
Overall, practicing proper hand hygiene is a fundamental step for nurses in reducing the risk of infection and maintaining a safe environment for both themselves and their clients.
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Drugs modify the brain chemistry and change behaviors.a. true b. false
The statement "Drugs modify the brain chemistry and change behaviors" is true. When a drug is introduced into the body, it interacts with the chemicals in the brain, altering the balance of neurotransmitters and other signaling molecules.
These changes can result in a variety of effects, including alterations in mood, perception, and behavior. For example, drugs like cocaine and methamphetamine increase the levels of dopamine in the brain, leading to feelings of euphoria and increased energy. Other drugs, such as marijuana and opioids, interact with the brain's natural cannabinoid and opioid receptors, respectively, producing different effects. Over time, repeated drug use can lead to long-lasting changes in the brain's chemistry, making it difficult for individuals to quit using the drug and leading to addiction. In conclusion, drugs do modify brain chemistry and can lead to significant changes in behavior, underscoring the importance of understanding the science behind drug addiction and developing effective treatments.
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You are called in the middle of the night to residence for an unknown alarm. Upon arrival, you see a family of four standing on the front lawn and a smoke detector alarm coming from the house. The mother tells you the alarm woke them, and they immediately exited the home. The father and two children are complaining of headaches. They are unsure why the alarm is sounding. You see no signs of smike coming from the residence. What should you do?
ABC's first and then neuro exam, tox screen, chem 7, check for heavy chemical toxin exposure and do a history to make sure it wasn't something environmental prior to the accident which exasturbated the reaction
What is the complementary strand of dna that is made during dna replication if the template/parent strand of dna reads atg ggc?.
TAC CCG GTA is the complementary strand of DNA that is made during DNA replication if the template/parent strand of DNA reads ATG GGC.
DNA replication is a type of biological process in which one original DNA molecule splits into two identical replicas. Before a cell divides, this procedure creates a copy of the DNA within the cell.
Both of the two chains combine to form a double helix of DNA when it comes to the complimentary strand, and equivalent places on the two chains are made up of a pair of complementary bases.
Adenine A, for instance, should be complementarily bonded to thymine and vice versa if it is present in the paternal DNA. Similarly to this, if cytosine is found in the paternal strand of DNA, guanine and vice versa should complementarily bind to it.
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A 2-month-old boy presents with a low fever and cough. Which of the following is suggestive of Chlamydia pneumonia in this infant?
A. Bullous myringitis
B. Diarrhea
C. Rusty-colored sputum
D. Staccato cough
Staccato cough
Answer: The correct answer is D
Explanation:
False positives for the presence of nitrites can happen if the specimen is ________ for too long.
Answer:
at room temperature
Explanation:
In evaluating the effect of nitroglycerin, Nurse Arthur should know that it reduces preload and
relieves angina by:
A. Increasing contractility and slowing heart rate
O B. Increasing AV conduction and heart rate
C. Decreasing contractility and oxygen consumption
D. Decreasing venous return through vasodilation
In evaluating the effect of nitroglycerin, Nurse Arthur should know that it reduces preload and
relieves angina by:
Answer : A
Explanation : Increasing contractility and slowing heart rate
Hope this helps you!
In evaluating the effect of nitroglycerin, Nurse Arthur should know that it reduces preload and relieves angina by increasing contractility and slowing the heart rate, which are present in Option A.
What is the heart rate?The heart is an organ that pumps blood to different body parts, and any harm to the heart would lead to a cardiac imbalance, such as a high or low heart rate. When the heart rate increases, so will the blood pressure, and a low heart contraction rate will lead to low blood pressure. When the heart rate rises, various drugs are administered to bring it back to normal.
Hence, in evaluating the effect of nitroglycerin, Nurse Arthur should know that it reduces preload and relieves angina by increasing contractility and slowing the heart rate, which are present in Option A.
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1. What is the major source of energy for the brain?
2. What are the four major divisions of the brain?
3. What is the role of the corpus callosum?
4. In what cerebral lobe is the precentral gyrus? The postcentral
Nervous System: Spinal Cord & Peripher
Go Figure
Instruction: Answer the questions below.
1. Which of the following is correct according to Fig. 11.1 below
Subarachnoid space
Endal
Answer:
1) glucose
The mammalian brain depends on glucose as its main source of energy. In the adult brain, neurons have the highest energy demand [1], requiring continuous delivery of glucose from blood.
2) Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital.
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They Control
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...Parietal lobe. ...
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...Parietal lobe. ...Occipital lobe. ...
Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital....Lobes of the Brain and What They ControlFrontal lobe. ...Parietal lobe. ...Occipital lobe. ...Temporal lobe.
3) The corpus callosum is the major neural pathway that connects homologous cortical areas of the two cerebral hemispheres. ... Other studies suggest that the corpus callosum integrates information across cerebral hemispheres and thus serves an excitatory function in interhemispheric communication.
4) The frontal lobe
The frontal lobeThe frontal lobe is the part of the cerebral cortex which lies rostral to the central sulcus. An important functional area of the frontal lobe is the precentral gyrus, which is located rostral to the central sulcus.
The mammalian brain depends on glucose as its main source of energy. In the adult brain, neurons have the highest energy demand [1], requiring continuous delivery of glucose from blood. Other part is discussed below:
What is brain hemisphere?Each brain hemisphere (parts of the cerebrum) has four sections, called lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital.
The corpus callosum is the major neural pathway that connects homologous cortical areas of the two cerebral hemispheres other studies suggest that the corpus callosum integrates information across cerebral hemispheres and thus serves an excitatory function in interhemispheric communication.
The frontal lobe The frontal lobeThe frontal lobe is the part of the cerebral cortex which lies rostral to the central sulcus. An important functional area of the frontal lobe is the precentral gyrus, which is located rostral to the central sulcus.
Therefore, The mammalian brain depends on glucose as its main source of energy. In the adult brain, neurons have the highest energy demand.
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QUESTION 1 Poly__________ is chronic inflammatory myopathy. a.myolacia b.myelitis c.myoporosis d.myositis 2 points QUESTION 2 RA is the abbreviation for: a.Right acromion b.Rheumatoid arthritis c.Rotated acetabulum d.Radial angiography 2 points QUESTION 3 ________plasty means surgical repair of a joint. a.Ankylo b.Arthro c.Chondro d.Burso 2 points QUESTION 4 The ________ is the smaller of the two lower leg bones. a.Fibula b.Malleolus c.Tibia d.Patella 2 points QUESTION 5 Having suffered severe burns in an accident, Steve develops hypocalcemia. Which laboratory test can detect hypocalcemia
you have to give options for the questions