What actually happens when conducting a probability experiment is

Answer:

15

Step-by-step explanation:

If'm not wrong you solve it like this:48-33=15

1. Flux losses in pipe attachments depend on factors such as the geometry of the attachments, the flow velocity, and the nature of the fluid being transported.

1. Flux losses in pipe attachments, such as bends, elbows, and fittings, depend on several factors. The geometry of the attachments plays a crucial role, as sharp turns or sudden changes in pipe direction can cause increased turbulence and energy losses.

Additionally, the flow velocity has an impact, as higher velocities can result in greater frictional losses. The nature of the fluid being transported also plays a role, with properties such as viscosity affecting the flow resistance.

2. The Reynolds value is a dimensionless parameter used to determine the flow regime. It is calculated by dividing the product of flow velocity, pipe diameter, and fluid density by the fluid viscosity. If the Reynolds value is below a certain threshold, the flow is considered laminar, characterized by smooth and orderly streamlines.

If the Reynolds value exceeds the threshold, the flow is turbulent, marked by irregular and chaotic motion. The transition from laminar to turbulent flow depends on various factors, including pipe roughness and flow velocity.

3. The loss coefficient of a valve quantifies the pressure drop across the valve. It is a dimensionless parameter that depends on the valve design, including factors such as the shape, size, and internal geometry.

However, the loss coefficient may not remain constant for different flow conditions. It can vary with changes in the valve's position, the flow rate, and the properties of the fluid. For example, partially closing a valve can increase the obstruction to the flow, resulting in a higher loss coefficient.

4. The loss coefficient of a gate valve can change based on the valve's position. Gate valves have a movable gate that controls the flow by either fully opening or closing the passage. When the gate is fully open, the flow obstruction is minimal, resulting in a lower loss coefficient. However, as the valve is partially closed, the obstruction to the flow increases, leading to a higher loss coefficient. The change in the loss coefficient with the position of the gate valve can be determined through experimental measurements.

In conclusion, the flux losses in pipe attachments depend on various factors such as geometry and flow velocity, the flow can be classified as laminar or turbulent based on the Reynolds value, the valve's loss coefficient can vary with different flow conditions, and the loss coefficient of a gate valve can change with the position of the valve.

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Answer:

67.38

Step-by-step explanation:

SinX=opp/hyp

Angles then arcsin

Given that AC is a diameter of the circle, we can conclude that triangle ABC is a right triangle, with AC being the hypotenuse. The area of the circle is not directly related to finding the lengths of BC or AB, so we will focus on the given information: AB = 16 units.

Using the Pythagorean theorem, we can find BC. The Pythagorean theorem states that in a right triangle, the square of the length of the hypotenuse (AC) is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides (AB and BC):

AC² = AB² + BC²

Substituting the given values, we have:

(AC)² = (AB)² + (BC)²

(AC)² = 16² + (BC)²

(AC)² = 256 + (BC)²

Now, we need to find the length of AC. Since AC is a diameter of the circle, the length of AC is equal to twice the radius of the circle.

AC = 2 * radius

To find the radius, we can use the formula for the area of a circle:

Area = π * radius²

Given that the area of the circle is 2897 units², we can solve for the radius:

2897 = π * radius²

radius² = 2897 / π

radius = √(2897 / π)

Now we have the length of AC, which is equal to twice the radius. We can substitute this value into the equation:

(2 * radius)² = 256 + (BC)²

4 * radius² = 256 + (BC)²

Substituting the value of radius, we have:

4 * (√(2897 / π))² = 256 + (BC)²

4 * (2897 / π) = 256 + (BC)²

Simplifying the equation gives:

(4 * 2897) / π = 256 + (BC)²

BC² = (4 * 2897) / π - 256

Now we can solve for BC by taking the square root of both sides:

BC = √((4 * 2897) / π - 256)

To find the measure of angle BC (mBC), we know that triangle ABC is a right triangle, so angle B will be 90 degrees.

In summary:

BC = √((4 * 2897) / π - 256)

mBC = 90 degrees

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Answer:

2$

Step-by-step explanation:

16$ times 5 = 80

80 divided by 40 =2

Answer:

$2

Step-by-step explanation:

The cost to move in for Victoria and Michael is $7,645.

The cost to move into the apartment for Victoria and Michael can be found by calculating the sum of the application deposit, credit report cost, security deposit, first and last month's rent, and the broker fee.

Using the given information:

$150 is the application deposit

$35 is the cost of the credit report

Security deposit is 1 month's rent which is $2,200

First and last month's rent are also $2,200 each.

Thus, the total amount for these two months will be $4,400

The broker charged 2.5% of the yearly rent.

The yearly rent is $2,200 × 12 months = $26,400.

Therefore, the broker fee will be 2.5% of $26,400 which is $660.

Total cost to move in = $150 + $35 + $2,200 + $2,200 + $660 + $2,200 = $7,645

Therefore, the cost to move in for Victoria and Michael is $7,645.

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The area of the trapezoid is 72 cm².

We have,

AB = EF = 8 cm

and CE = FD = 4 cm

So, CD = CE + EF + FD

CD = 4 + 8 + 4

CD = 16 cm

Now, the Area of trapezoid

= 1/2 x (sum of parallel sides) x height

= 1/2 x (16+ 8) x 6

= 1/2 x 24 x 6

= 72 cm²

Thus, The area of trapezoid is 72 cm²

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Use Pythagorean

Answer:

in right angled triangle BCD

by using Pythagoras law

P²+B²=H²

A²+B²=C²

36²+18²=x²

x=√1620=18√5m

x=18√5 m is your answer

Answer:

I believe that the answer is 8 because you have 1 inch =1/8 inch since you need eight 1/8 inches to equal one whole inch, it should be 8 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

The scale factor of the drawing if the scale is 1 inch = 1/8 inch is

A scale drawing is a drawing made by enlarging or reducing the size of the original object.

The factor by which the drawing is enlarged or reduced is called the scale factor.

Given that,

Scale of a drawing is,

1 inch = 1/8 inch

That is, a drawing is drawn for which it is drawn 1/8 inch for actual dimension of 1 inch.

So, drawing is reduces by 1/8

So scale factor = 1/8

Hence the scale factor of the drawing is 1/8.

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The labor cost percentage for next Friday at Fawlty Towers would be approximately 0.63%, which is closest to the option a. 0.05%.

To calculate the labor cost percentage for next Friday at the Fawlty Towers, we need to consider the number of rooms, the time required to clean each room, the number of working hours, the labor rate, and the occupancy rate. Here are the steps to determine the labor cost percentage:

Calculate the number of rooms to be cleaned. If the hotel has 1000 rooms and the occupancy rate for next Friday is 80%, then the number of occupied rooms would be 1000 * 0.8 = 800 rooms.

Calculate the total time required to clean the rooms. Since each room attendant is allocated 30 minutes per room, the total time required would be 800 rooms * 30 minutes = 24,000 minutes.

Convert the total cleaning time to hours. Since there are 60 minutes in an hour, the total cleaning time would be 24,000 minutes / 60 = 400 hours.

Calculate the total labor cost. Each room attendant works 8 hours per day, so for 400 hours, the hotel would require 400 hours / 8 hours = 50 room attendants. Considering their hourly rate of $15, the total labor cost would be 50 room attendants * $15/hour = $750.

Calculate the total revenue. The Average Daily Rate (ADR) is expected to be $150, and with an occupancy rate of 80%, the total revenue would be 800 rooms * $150/room = $120,000.

Calculate the labor cost percentage. Divide the total labor cost ($750) by the total revenue ($120,000) and multiply by 100 to get the percentage: ($750 / $120,000) * 100 = 0.625%.

Therefore, the labor cost percentage for next Friday at Fawlty Towers would be approximately 0.63%, which is closest to the option 0.05%.

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The Fawlty Towers is a Nuxury 1000 room hotel catering to business executives. The occupancy for nad Friday is expected to be 80% Room attendants are allocated 30 minutes to clean each room Room attendants work 8 hours per day at a rate of $15/hour. ADR is expected to be $150 What would the labour cost percentage be for next Friday assuming everything stays the same?

a. 0.05%

b. 5.00%

c. 20.00%

d. 0.20%

Answer:

scale factor = \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

The scale factor is the ratio of corresponding sides, image to original

scale factor = \(\frac{11}{33}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Using sampling concepts, the population being studied is all visitors that are flying to the state of Hawaii.

The problem is incomplete, but researching it on a search engine, it asks for us to identify who is the population of this study.

In this problem, a set of visitors traveling to Hawaii were sampled, hence the population being studied is all visitors that are flying to the state of Hawaii.

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Answer:

Angle of elevation= 180- (20- 55)

180- 75

105°

The statement which best describes the value of the expression at; x = 1 is; Choice D; The result is a whole number that is neither prime nor composite.

It follows from the task content that the value of the expression be determined at; x = 1 and consequently, the result be classified as a whole number, prime number or composite number.

Hence, when x = 1;

5x - 4 = 5(1) - 4.

= 5 - 4

= 1.

Hence, the result is 1 which can be classified as a whole number (integer). However, it is not a prime number and neither is it a composite number.

Therefore, Choice D is correct.

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Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

X = time taken to complete mathematics homework

Y= time taken to complete language homework

Standard deviation of X ; SD(X) = 3

Standard deviation of Y ; SD(Y) = 4

rho = - 0.375

rho = Cov(X, Y) / SD(X) * SD(Y)

-0.375 = COV(X, Y) / 3 * 4

COV(X, Y) = 12 * - 0.375

COV(X,Y) = - 4.5

Variance(X, Y) = V(X, Y)

V(X, Y) = V(X) + V(Y) + 2COV(X,Y)

V(X) =SD(X)² = 3² = 9

V(Y) = SD(Y)² = 4² = 16

V(X,Y) = 9 + 16 + 2(-4.5)

V(X, Y) = 16

SD(X, Y) = sqrt(V(X, Y)) = sqrt(16) = 4

Hence, standard deviation to complete entire homework, SD(X, Y) = 4

Answer:

D

since 45027/3 is is 15009 and 804597/3 is 268199

Answer:

B (56!)

Step-by-step explanation:

okay so you have to convert the inches to feet given the measurements

6.4(2.5)=16

4.8(2.5)=12

12+12+16+16=56

Answer:

perimeter = 56 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

4.8 in by 6.4 in

1 in = 2.5 ft

4.8 x 2.5 = 12

6.4 x 2.5 = 16

12 x 2 = 24

16 x 2 = 32

32 + 24 = 56

Answer:

3 - 7j is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

-5j + -2j + 3

|_______|

-7j + 3 [or vice versa, like in the above answer]

Answer: −7 j + 3  I hope I helped!!!

Answer:

We should know that the basic rules of equality(only addition and multiplication) can also be followed in inequalities no matter which inequalities they are(whether strict or slack).

Inequalities behave in some another ways when we multiply the whole expression by the negative real number.

so let's come to the question :

14 >= t + 5 >= -9

so, 14-5 >= t >= -9-5

so, 9 >= t >= -14

we come to the conclusion that,

t <= 9 and t >= -14

t belongs to [-14,9]

Answer:

$18.43

Step-by-step explanation:

The computation of each member have to pay as follows:

The bill before the tip is $125

The tip percentage is 18%

So the bill after tip is

= $125 + $125 × 18%

= $125 + $22.5

= $147.50

Now for each member, it would be

= $147.50 ÷ 8 members

= $18.43

Answer:

No.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we know the side lengths of the triangle, we can figure out whether or not this is a Pythagorean triple.

Pythagorean theorem: a^2 + b^2 = c^2

a and b are both smaller than c.

So,

8^2 = 64.

13^2 = 169.

15^2 = 225.

64 + 169 = 233.

233 is not equal to 225.

Therefore, this is not a right triangle.

Step-by-step explanation:

(a)4/5×5=4-1/8=3.875or (32 if a is division)

(b)1 1/3=4/3×9=12 12×1/6=2

(c)7/8×8=7÷2/5=0.7 or 2.8

(d)16×6/4=24×10=240

Step-by-step explanation:

one week has 7 days

7 × 2/3 = 4 2/3 cans

The positive difference between the two probabilities is 11/35.

To calculate the probability that three distinct numbers chosen at random without replacement from the set would have an even sum, Jan would consider the number of ways to choose three even numbers (4 choose 3) and divide that by the total number of combinations of three numbers (7 choose 3).

To calculate the probability that three distinct numbers chosen at random without replacement from the set would have an even product, Judy would consider the number of ways to choose three numbers such that the product is even (3 choose 2) and divide that by the total number of combinations of three numbers (7 choose 3).

The positive difference between the two probabilities would be the difference between these two calculations. In this case, 11/35 is a positive difference, meaning that the probability of having an even product is 11/35 higher than the probability of having an even sum.

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Answer:

250 candy bars and 500 gummi bears

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be the amount of candy bars they sold and y be the amount of gummi bears they sold.

We can use this to set up a system of equations:

x+y=750

2x+1.5y=1250

We can change the first equation into:

x=750-y

Then, we can solve the system of equations by substitution (substitute 750-y for x)

2(750-y)+1.5y=1250

1500-2y+1.5y=1250

1500-0.5y=1250

Add 1500 to both sides

-0.5y=-250

Divide both sides by -0.5

y=500

x=750-500=250

They sold 250 candy bars and 500 gummi bears

Answer:

Yes, because 9 is in the hundreths place and 3 is in the tenths

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

no because 0.3 is the same as 3/10 and 0.9 is the same as 9/10 wich is greater

The jοint prοbability οf A and B οccurring is 0.12.

Prοbability is a way οf calculating hοw likely sοmething is tο happen. It is difficult tο prοvide a cοmplete predictiοn fοr many events. Using it, we can οnly fοrecast the prοbability, οr likelihοοd, οf an event οccurring. The prοbability might be between 0 and 1, where 0 denοtes an impοssibility and 1 denοtes a certainty.

Here the given P(A)=0.3 and P(B│A) = 0.4

The οbjective is tο find the jοint prοbability οf A and B οccurring.

A and B are twο events.

The cοnditiοnal prοbability fοrmula is given by,

P(B│A) =\(\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(A)}\)

=> 0.4 = \(\frac{P(A\cap B)}{0.3}\)

=> P(A∩B) = 0.12.

Hence the joint probability of A and B occurring is 0.12.

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Answer:

140

Step-by-step explanation:

the triangle is 180 degrees

Answer:

Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Below

The answer is A Rectangle. Or (Wrecked angle) Shortened up.

1-119.

2:135

3:45

4:22

5:60

6:A

7 10

8:143

9:62

Answer:

c=9

(x-3)^2 = 4

x= 1,5

Step-by-step explanation:

x^2 - 6x = -5

Take the coefficient of x

-6

Divide by 2

-6/2 = -3

Square it

(-3)^2 = 9

Add this to each side

x^2 - 6x + 9 = -5 + 9

x^2 -6x+9 = 4

(x-3)^2 = 4

Take the square root of each side

sqrt((x-3)^2) = ±sqrt(4)

x-3 = ±2

Add 3 to each side

x-3+3 = 3±2

x = 3+2      x = 3-2

x =5            x=1