therapists should acquire in training and practice throughout their professional lives?

Answers

Answer 1

Continuous education and professional development are essential for therapists throughout their careers.

Therapists should actively engage in continuous education and professional development throughout their professional lives. The field of therapy is constantly evolving, with new research, techniques, and approaches emerging. By pursuing ongoing training and learning opportunities, therapists can stay updated with the latest advancements and best practices in their field.

Continued education allows therapists to expand their knowledge base, refine their skills, and enhance their effectiveness in working with clients. It enables them to acquire new therapeutic techniques, stay informed about evidence-based interventions, and develop a deeper understanding of various client populations and their specific needs.

Professional development also fosters personal growth and self-awareness for therapists. It provides opportunities for reflection, supervision, and feedback, which are essential for enhancing clinical competence and maintaining ethical standards.

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Related Questions

The suffix -dynia means

Answers

Answer:  - pain. Gastrodynia  

Explanation: Gastodynia also means pain in the stomach (gastr/o means stomach, and -dynia means pain)

Hope this helps you! ;-)

A 68 yo male presents with complaints of an aching pain in both thighs when he walks about one block. The pain subsides within about 1-2 minutes after he stops ambulating. The best initial test in this case is:-perform an ankle brachial index (ABI)-Perform Pulse volume recording (PVR)-Perform lower extremity MRA-Perform bilateral leg ultrasound

Answers

A 68 yo male presents with complaints of an aching pain in both thighs when he walks about one block. Perform an ankle brachial index (ABI) as the best initial test in this case.

An ankle brachial index (ABI) is a non-invasive test that compares the blood pressure in the ankle to the blood pressure in the arm. A low ABI suggests narrowing or blockage of the arteries in the legs, which can cause symptoms of claudication (pain or cramping in the legs with exercise). It is a simple and reliable test to diagnose peripheral artery disease (PAD), which is a common cause of claudication in older adults. PVR and MRA can also diagnose PAD, but are more expensive and less readily available than ABI. Ultrasound is useful for diagnosing blood clots, but not as useful for diagnosing PAD.

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10. When making an online complaint, what advice should you follow?
(Select only one)
Focus only on the facts and support them.
Use strong language to demonstrate your frustration.
Post your complaint anonymously.
Make your complaint lengthy to demonstrate the seriousness of your complaint

Answers

Answer:

Focus only on the facts and support them

Explanation:

"Focus only on the facts and support them" is only right option here. You may get some benefit from showing your frustration but this is rare case as companies admire facts only.

anonymously complain and lengthy complain are negative things to complain support as contact person will loss interest to response effectively.

focus only on the facts and support them.

What is the best, most accurate description for "agonal respirations"?

Answers

Answer:

abnormal breathing pattern characterized by slow, shallow, gasping breaths that typically occur following cardiac arrest

Explanation:

struggling to breathe -- gasping -

Answer:

jesus

Explanation:

explain the importance of nonverbal communication when communicating with a person who is confused and agitated?​

Answers

Answer: try and calm them down and explain to them what it is you are working on.

Explanation:

BsjakkakakkkkkkknNna

3. Which abbreviation stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube?​

Answers

The abbreviation EDTA stands for a type of blood collection vacuum tube.

What is EDTA?

EDTA is a chelating agent that binds to calcium ions, which prevents the blood from clotting. This allows the blood to be collected and transported without clotting, which is important for many laboratory tests.

EDTA is the most common type of blood collection tube used in clinical laboratories. It is used to collect blood for a variety of tests, including complete blood counts, chemistry tests, and blood cultures.

EDTA blood collection tubes are typically lavender in color. They are labeled with the abbreviation "EDTA" and the volume of blood that is required for the test.

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Which of the following is an indication for endotracheal intubation the need to administer cpap

Answers

what are the options?
is used to successfully extubate patients that might still benefit from positive pressure but who may not need invasive ventilation, such as obese patients with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) or patients with congestive heart failure.May 7

After measuring peak expiratory flow, paramedics note that this reading varies by 30rom previous readings. what does this indicate in regards to the exacerbation?

Answers

If the peak expiratory flow (PEF) reading varies by 30 or more from previous readings, it may indicate that the patient's condition is worsening or that they are experiencing an exacerbation.

PEF is a measure of how fast air can be exhaled from the lungs, and it is often used to monitor the severity of asthma and other respiratory conditions.

A significant decrease in PEF from previous readings may indicate that the patient's airways are becoming more constricted or inflamed, which can make it more difficult for them to breathe.

This may be due to a variety of factors, such as exposure to allergens or irritants, respiratory infections, or changes in medication or treatment.

It is important for paramedics and other healthcare providers to monitor PEF readings regularly, especially in patients with known respiratory conditions.

If there is a significant change in PEF from previous readings, it may be necessary to adjust the patient's treatment or seek additional medical attention to prevent further exacerbation of their condition.

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When an emt takes the time to ask permission from a conscious adult to do an assessment and procedures, this is respecting the legal principle of:____.

Answers

Expressed consent.

Informed consent is another name for expressed consent. In many medical circumstances, a doctor will want specific written approval. A medical permission form is often signed by a patient to indicate their express agreement for a certain medical treatment or medical procedure.

Four conditions must be met by the patient in order for them to express consent:

Conscious - For consent to be given, the patient must be awake and conscious.Competent - The patient has to understand the implications of their choice.Informed - The patient must be informed of the therapy they will undergo.Adult - The patient must be emancipated or at least 18 years old (or the applicable local age of majority).

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An __ drug is also known as a tranquilizer

Answers

Answer:

An anxiolytic drug is also known as a tranquilizer

Explanation:

A physician orders D5W at 600mL over 10 hours and you are using a 20gtt/ mL IV administration set. What is the drop rate in gtt/min? (Round to the nearest whole number)

Answers

Answer:

20 gtt/min

Explanation:

This can be set on a formula I attached below (that's circled) you will have to turn hrs -> mins (which is easy in this case 10x 60 = 600 mins ), so you will multiply 600 mL x 20 gtt/mL and  then divide it  by 600 minutes to have 20 gtt/min.

A physician orders D5W at 600mL over 10 hours and you are using a 20gtt/ mL IV administration set. What
There work is correct 20 is the answer hope this helps

abnormal for pregnant female third trimester

Answers

Answer:

Things that may occur for a pregnant female in their third trimester include gestational diabetes, pre-eclampsia, pre-term labour, P.R.O.M., placenta problems, I.U.G.R., post-term and malpresentation.

prescription medications are designed to induce a specific effect on a neurotransmitter. many of the effects of legal and illegal drugs are due to their action on neurotransmitters. match the drug with the primary neurotransmitter it affects.

Answers

The correctly matched answers are

A) ecstasy with 2

B) cocaine with 1

C) heroin with 4

D) Alcohol with 3

Serotonin and norepinephrine are released by MDMA more so than dopamine. Mood, sleep, pain, appetite, and other behaviours are significantly regulated by the neurotransmitter serotonin. The effects of MDMA that allow people to feel happier are probably due to the extra serotonin release.

Dopamine builds up at the junction of VTA cells and NAc cells as a result of cocaine use, resulting in euphoric feelings and NAc cell activity that make the brain more sensitive to more drug exposure.

Heroin strongly stimulates dopamine neurons, whereas serotonin neurons are only stimulated at higher doses. In just a few seconds, nicotine activates dopamine neurons, but it has little impact on serotonin neurons.

Alcohol increases GABA receptor activity, which slows down brain activity. It is hypothesised that this is the reason why it immediately reduces anxiety, and overdosing can result in coma. But if alcohol is constantly available, the brain's receptors adjust by producing fewer GABA receptors.

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what are the purposes for determining pulse rates and quality of pulses​

Answers

In addition to the rate, it's important to document the rhythm and quality of the pulse. The rhythm will be either regular or irregular, and the quality will usually be described as strong or weak. Most healthy adults have a resting heart rate of between 60 and 100 beats per minute, regular and strong.

What are the limitations of presumptive tests?

Answers

What are its limitations? A presumptive test presumes the presence of the questioned substance. ... False positive is possible--meaning that the test result is positive but the substance is not present.

Your team is caring for a term newborn whose heart rate is 50 bpm after receiving effective ventilation, chest compressions, and intravenous epinephrine administration. There is a history of acute blood loss around the time of delivery. You administer 10 mL/kg of normal saline (based on the newborn’s estimated weight). At what rate should this be administered

Answers

The gasping respiration, and positive pressure ventilation via face cover should be started with 21 percent oxygen or blended oxygen using a self-inflating bag, flow-inflating bag.

What should you do if the neonate's heart rate falls below 60 beats per minute?

If the heart rate drops 60 bpm despite good oxygenation and ventilation, start chest contractions.

If the heart stays drops 60 bpm after 30-45 seconds of cogent chest squeezes, epinephrine 10 mcg/kg should be nursed intravenously.

Thus,  positive pressure ventilation via face cover should be initiated with 21 percent oxygen.

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what is the effector cells?

Answers

Answer:  the relatively short-lived activated cells that defend the body in an immune response

Explanation - So they basically respond to short lived cells -v-

A lymphocyte (such as a T cell) that has been induced to differentiate into a form (such as a cytotoxic T cell) capable of mounting a specific immune response.

which side effect is important for the nurse to educate on prior to patient taking benzodiazepine? nclex quixlet

Answers

These include lethargy, vertigo, and sleepiness. Be exceedingly cautious when administering benzodiazepines through an IV since they can cause cardiac arrest and apnea with fast IV infusion.

What is benzodiazepine used for?

If your everyday life is being significantly affected by either severe anxiety or severe sleeplessness, benzodiazepines may be administered to treat such conditions. The benzodiazepine clonazepam may occasionally be prescribed by doctors to treat panic disorder. In some cases, benzodiazepine might not be the best course of therapy.

Are benzodiazepines harmful?

The risks of addiction, detoxification, cognitive decline, auto accidents, and hip fracture are all increased by benzodiazepines. When sedative medicines like opioids or alcohol are used together, the danger of overdosing is heightened.

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A box of pseudoephedrine contains 10 tablets with a strength of 120 per tablet. How many boxes may a patient purchase in a 30 day period If purchasing from a retail pharmacy ?

Answers

Answer:

3 boxes.

Explanation:

30/10= 3

Answer:

C

Explanation:

hope this helps :D

what is the most common uterine tumor during pregnancy ?
a. sarcoma
b. adenomyosis
c. adenoma
d. leiomyoma

Answers

I’m pretty sure it’s B
i’m pretty sure it’s B :)

Who emphasized a code of behavior for physicians that was the foundation of medical ethics?

Answers

Answer:

Thomas percival and he was a philosopher

The Code of Medical Ethics, written by English physician and philosopher Thomas Percival in 1803, outlines the proper conduct expected of medical professionals in relation to hospitals and other charitable organizations.

The creation of an ethics code and the listing of minimal standards for medical education and training were the two main issues on the agenda at the AMA's first conference in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania, in 1847. Percival's Medical Ethics was a major influence on the Code of Ethics that was approved at that meeting.

This code is known as the Hippocratic Oath. Although the exact authorship and original text of the oath are debated, it is attributed to Hippocrates and represents a set of ethical principles and guidelines for physicians to follow in their practice.

The Hippocratic Oath emphasizes principles such as the duty to preserve patient confidentiality, the commitment to do no harm (primum non nocere), and the importance of beneficence and patient-centered care. The Hippocratic Oath has had a profound and enduring influence on medical ethics throughout history.

So, Thomas Percival was the one who emphasized a code of behavior for physicians that was the foundation of medical ethics.

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A physician orders Lanoxin elixir qd for an 81-pound child based on 3.4 mcg/ kg/day. Lanoxin (digoxin) Pediatric Elixir is 50 mcg (0.05 mg)/mL. What volume should be administered per dose?

Answers

Answer:

Therefore 2.5 ml of Lanoxin (digoxin) Pediatric Elixir is to be administered to the child daily

Explanation:

The child weighs 81 pound. The weight of the child is needed to be converted from pound to kg.

1 kg= 2.2 pound

Therefore 81 pound = 81/2.2 kg = 36.8 kg

Since the child is to be administered bases on 3.4 mcg/ kg/day, the volume of Lanoxin elixir qd to be administered to the 81 pound (36.8 kg) in one day = 36.8 kg × 3.4 mcg/ kg/day = 125.12 ≅ 125 mcg

Lanoxin (digoxin) Pediatric Elixir is 50 mcg (0.05 mg)/mL, therefore 125 mcg = 125 mcg / 50 mcg/ml = 2.5 ml

Therefore 2.5 ml of Lanoxin (digoxin) Pediatric Elixir is to be administered to the child daily

HELP ME!!!!! PSYC IS CONFUSING...
Describe the basic structure of a neuron, and how neurons receive and send information, making sure to include a description of the "action potential."

Answers

A typical neuron consists of a cell body (soma), dendrites, and a single axon. The soma is usually compact. The axon and dendrites are filaments that extrude from it. Dendrites typically branch profusely and extend a few hundred micrometers from the soma. I know that this only answers part of it, but I hope this helps.

Patient is admitted for observation for COPD with exacerbation. The physician has reviewed the chest x-ray. cpt and icd code

Answers

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a pulmonary disease. In this condition, the airflow in the lung is blocked causing many breathing problems. This blockage also attracts other breathing problems such as chronic bronchitis and emphysema.

The CPT code for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is J44.0 whereas the ICD code is J44.1. For the treatment of CPOD, the patient has to quit smoking and join a pulmonary rehabilitation center. Medical procedures such as lung surgery and endobronchial therapy, A person can permanently stay on oxygen for recovery.

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The fact that fine motor skills are aided by gross motor skill capabilities underscores the _____.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

3

17. You enter the water to rescue a victim with a suspected spinal injury. You determine that
the victim is not breathing. What should you do next?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

You would remove the victim from the water, and use the Extrication Using a Backboard at the Pool Edge technique.

Answer:

resuscitate her/him

Explanation:

To get the water out

Intradermal (ID) injections are use in ______ and tuberculin testing.

a. pregnancy
b. allergy
c. hepatitis
d. cancer

Answers

Intradermal (ID) injections are used in content-loaded Intradermal (ID) injections and tuberculin testing. So, the correct answer is B: Allergy.

Intradermal (ID) injections are one of the medical procedures used for diagnostic tests in various cases, such as the tuberculin test, which is a type of screening test that is performed to identify if a person has TB (tuberculosis).  Intradermal (ID) injections are a type of injection given into the topmost layer of skin (intradermal) rather than into the muscles. These injections usually involve a small volume of medication, commonly less than 0.5 mL, and must be carried out by a qualified nurse, a physician, or another medical practitioner.Intradermal injections can be used for the tuberculin test and in allergy testing. The tuberculin test helps to detect whether a person has ever been exposed to tuberculosis or not. So, the correct answer is B: Allergy.

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A _______ is a ridge in the gastrointestinal system.

Answers

Answer:

the answer is ruga hope this helped :)

the nurse is discussing risk factors of an aneurysm. what should be included? select all that apply.

Answers

Answer: The nurse should discuss the following risk factors of an aneurysm: smoking, hypertension, family history, and age.

What is an aneurysm?

An aneurysm is an abnormal bulge that forms in the wall of an artery or vein. It can grow and press on surrounding organs or tissues, resulting in symptoms such as pain, numbness, or weakness. If an aneurysm ruptures, it can cause life-threatening internal bleeding.

What are the risk factors of an aneurysm?

Age: Aneurysms are more common in older adults than in younger people, and the risk increases with age.

Smoking: Smoking can damage blood vessels and increase the risk of developing an aneurysm.

Hypertension: High blood pressure can weaken blood vessels and make them more likely to develop an aneurysm.

Family history: If someone in your family has had an aneurysm, you may be at increased risk of developing one.

Genetics: Some genetic conditions, such as Marfan syndrome or Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, can increase the risk of aneurysms.

Other risk factors include head trauma, infection, and certain medical conditions, such as atherosclerosis or peripheral artery disease.



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when a normally well adjusted person becomes ill, she is likely to

Answers

Yes she is unfortunately

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