Select the correct answer.
F₁ = 70 N
F₂ = 15 N
8
F₁
W = 80 N
Use this free body diagram to help you find the magnitude of the force F₁ needed to keep this block in static equilibrium.

0.0034 is equal to 3.4 x 10⁻³, written in scientific notation.

A way of expressing numbers that are either too large or too small (which would usually result in a long string of digits) to be conveniently written in decimal form is called scientific notation. It is commonly used by scientists, engineers, and mathematicians, in part because scientific notation can simplify certain arithmetic operations.

In order to write 0.0034 in scientific notation, first we determine if the exponent for the base 10 is positif or negative. Since 0.0034 is less than 1, the exponent must be negative.

Next, we find the coefficient. It is 3,4 because the base should be a number between 1 and 9, including the non-negative number(s) after, and 3 is the first non-negative number behind the decimal point.

Lastly, we find the exponent itself. It has to be a negative number. Since we moved the decimal point (until we get to the number after 3) three times, the exponent then is -3.

Gathering all the facts and we've got 3,4 x 10⁻³. That is 0.0034 written in scientific notation.

Learn more about scientific notation at https://brainly.com/question/27862246.

#SPJ4

The mass of the object is approximately 0.457 kg.

The mass of the object attached to the trolley can be calculated using the principle of conservation of momentum. Since the two trolleys couple together and move as a single system after the collision, the total momentum before and after the collision should be the same. Given the mass of one trolley is 0.80 kg and the initial speed is 1.1 m/s, the momentum before the collision is 0.80 kg * 1.1 m/s = 0.88 kg·m/s. After the collision, the total mass is the sum of the two trolleys, and the final speed is 0.70 m/s.

Using the momentum equation, the mass of the object can be calculated as follows:

Total momentum before collision = Total momentum after collision

0.88 kg·m/s = (0.80 kg + mass of the object) * 0.70 m/s

Solving for the mass of the object, we get:

0.88 kg·m/s = (0.80 kg + mass of the object) * 0.70 m/s

0.88 kg·m/s = 0.56 kg + 0.70 kg * mass of the object

0.88 kg·m/s - 0.56 kg = 0.70 kg * mass of the object

0.32 kg = 0.70 kg * mass of the object

Dividing both sides by 0.70 kg, we find:

mass of the object = 0.32 kg / 0.70 kg = 0.457 kg

The two trolleys collide and couple together, the total momentum before the collision is equal to the total momentum after the collision according to the principle of conservation of momentum.

The momentum of an object is defined as the product of its mass and velocity. In this case, the mass of one trolley is known (0.80 kg) and the initial speed is given (1.1 m/s), allowing us to calculate the momentum before the collision.

After the collision, the two trolleys move together at a new speed (0.70 m/s). By setting the initial momentum equal to the final momentum and solving for the unknown mass of the object, we can find its value.

In the calculation, we subtract the masses of the two trolleys from the total mass in order to isolate the mass of the object.

Dividing the difference in momentum by the product of the known mass and the new speed, we obtain the mass of the object. In this case, the mass of the object is approximately 0.457 kg.

for such more questions on  mass

https://brainly.com/question/86444

#SPJ8

Explanation:

the vector of the coordinates is

5-1 = 4 miles East

4 miles North

Answer:I think Fossils show that some animals are extinct

Explanation:

Please mark as brainliest for me.Thanks

The potential energy of the roller coaster is 176,400 J (joules).

The potential energy of an object is given by the formula PE = mgh, where PE is the potential energy, m is the mass of the object, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height or vertical position of the object.

In this case, the roller coaster is at a peak of 20m and has a mass of 900kg. The acceleration due to gravity, g, is approximately 9.8 \(m/s^2\).

Using the formula, we can calculate the potential energy:

PE = mgh

= (900 kg)(9.8 \(m/s^2\))(20 m)

= 176,400 J

Therefore, the potential energy of the roller coaster is 176,400 J (joules).

Know more about  potential energy    here:

https://brainly.com/question/21175118

#SPJ8

Answer:

Steel is mostly composed of iron and carbon. It contains small amounts of manganese and even smaller amounts of silicon, phosphorous, oxygen, sulfur, and other elements.

...

Density of Steel.

carbon steel - 7.86

stainless steel - 7.9

To determine the time Pete arrives at work, we can start by calculating the total time he spends on his commute and gym routine:

Time spent driving to the gym = 12.5 miles ÷ average speed

We don't know Pete's average speed, so we cannot calculate this.

Time spent in the gym = 45 minutes

Time spent driving from the gym to work = 9 miles ÷ average speed

Again, we don't know Pete's average speed, so we cannot calculate this.

Total time spent on commute and gym routine = time spent driving to gym + time spent in gym + time spent driving from gym to work

= Unknown + 45 minutes + Unknown

Next, we can convert the total time to hours and minutes:

Total time = (Unknown + 45 minutes + Unknown) ÷ 60

= (Unknown + Unknown) ÷ 60 + 45/60

= (2Unknown) ÷ 60 + 0.75

= (Unknown) ÷ 30 + 0.75

We know that Pete needs to arrive at work by 9.00am, so we can set up an equation:

Arrival time = 7.30am + Total time

9.00am = 7.30am + (Unknown/30) + 0.75

Solving for Unknown:

1.5 hours = Unknown/30

Unknown = 45 minutes

Therefore, Pete will arrive at work at 8.15am.

Learn more about time from

https://brainly.com/question/18252403

#SPJ1

Answer:

1.Contact because its a contact force

2 Contact because when the car is stopping it is coming in to contact with the ground.

3 non Contact because magnets don't need to have contact they pull

4 non Contact because its not a contact force

The amount the needle on the meter is deflected A. increases

This phenomenon can be explained by Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction. According to this law, when a magnetic field (created by the bar magnet) passes through a coil of wire, it induces an electric current in the wire. This induced current generates its own magnetic field, which interacts with the magnetic field of the bar magnet.

The deflection of the meter needle is a result of this induced current. When the number of coils of wire is increased, there is a greater number of wire loops for the magnetic field to pass through. This leads to a stronger induction of electric current, resulting in a larger deflection of the meter needle.

By increasing the number of coils, more magnetic flux is linked with the wire, resulting in a higher induced electromotive force (emf) and a greater current. This increased current produces a stronger magnetic field around the wire, leading to a larger deflection on the meter. Therefore, increasing the number of coils of wire enhances the magnetic field interaction, resulting in an increased deflection of the meter needle. Therefore, Option A is correct.

Know more about Faraday's law here:

https://brainly.com/question/1640558

#SPJ8

From the question;

1) It takes 15.75 years to decrease to 1/8

2) It takes 8.36 years to decrease to 1/3

Half-life is the length of time it takes for a chemical to degrade or go through a particular process. It frequently refers to the length of time it takes for half of a radioactive substance to decay into a stable form in the context of radioactive decay.

We know that;

\(N/No = (1/2)^t/t1/2\)

No = initial amount

N = amount at time t

t = Time taken

t1/2 = half life

\(1/8 = (1/2)^t/5.252^-3 = 2^-t/5.25\)

t = 15.75 years

Again;

\(1/3 = (1/2)^t/5.25\)

ln0.33 = t/5.25ln0.5

t = ln0.33/ln0.5 * 5.25

t = 8.36 years

Learn more about half life:https://brainly.com/question/31666695

#SPJ1

Answer:

d

Explanation:

i just know (pls check out my question pls i will give nayone who answers brainiest)

a) To find the unit vector r^ that points from flan 2 to flan 1, we need to subtract the position vector of flan 2 from that of flan 1 and then divide by the magnitude of the resulting vector:

r→ = r→ 1 - r→ 2 = 〈2.0∗105 - 9.0∗105, 4.0∗105 - 4.0∗105, 0 - 0〉 = 〈-7.0∗105, 0, 0〉

| r→ | = sqrt((-7.0∗10^5)^2 + 0^2 + 0^2) = 7.0∗10^5 m

r^ = r→ / | r→ | = 〈-1, 0, 0〉

b) The magnitude of the gravitational force on flan 2 due to flan 1 is given by the formula:

F = G * m1 * m2 / r^2

where G is the gravitational constant (6.6743 × 10^-11 Nm^2/kg^2), m1 and m2 are the masses of flan 1 and flan 2 respectively, and r^ is the unit vector pointing from flan 2 to flan 1. Substituting the given values, we get:

F = 6.6743 × 10^-11 * 5.0×10^21 * 2.0×10^21 / (7.0×10^5)^2 ≈ 2.23 × 10^18 N

c) To find the gravitational force vector on flan 2 due to flan 1, we multiply the magnitude F by the unit vector r^:

F→ = F * r^ = (2.23 × 10^18) * 〈-1, 0, 0〉 = 〈-2.23 × 10^18, 0, 0〉 N

d) To predict the velocity of flan 2 in one time step Δt=14400 seconds later, we can use the formula for the gravitational force between two objects:

F = m * a

where F is the gravitational force, m is the mass of the object, and a is its acceleration. We can solve for the acceleration of flan 2:

a = F / m2 = (-2.23 × 10^18) / (2.0×10^21) = -1.115 m/s^2

The negative sign indicates that the acceleration is in the opposite direction of the unit vector r^. Using the formula for constant acceleration:

v = v0 + a * Δt

where v0 is the initial velocity (which is zero in this case), we can find the velocity of flan 2 after one time step:

v = 0 + (-1.115) * 14400 = -16056 m/s

Again, the negative sign indicates that the velocity is in the opposite direction of the unit vector r^.

To know more about position vector, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/14552074

#SPJ4

The earthquake would occur 13 minutes before 10:05 a.m. which will be at 9.52 am.

The p-waves travel with a constant velocity of 7 km/s

The time can be calculated by using the formula

t = d / v

where

T1 =  10:05 a.m

d is the distance they take to travel from the epicenter

v is the speed of the p-waves

On average, the speed of p-waves is

v = 7 km/s

d = 5600 km (given)

Substituting the values in the formula;

t = d / v

t = 5600 ÷ 7

t = 800 seconds

Converting into minutes,

t = 800 ÷ 60

t = 13.3

≈ 13 mins

T1 -  13 mins = T2

10:05 - 13 mins = 9.52 am

It means the earthquake occurred prior 13 minutes, that is at 9.52 am.

Therefore, the earthquake occurred at 9.52 am.

Learn more about earthquakes from the given link.

https://brainly.com/question/25843505

An incandescent object refers to an object that emits light as a result of being heated to a high temperature.

When an object is heated, its atoms and molecules gain energy, causing them to vibrate and move more rapidly. This increased energy causes the object to emit electromagnetic radiation, including visible light, which makes the object glow.

Incandescence is commonly observed in everyday objects such as incandescent light bulbs, where a tungsten filament is heated by an electric current until it reaches a temperature that causes it to emit visible light.

As the filament gets hotter, it emits light with a higher intensity and shifts towards shorter wavelengths, starting from a warm red glow and progressing towards a brighter, white light.

Learn more about incandescent here:

https://brainly.com/question/29488831

#SPJ1

+500   because North is postiive direction

-300 because if you see it as a graph, left side is negative

-800 because South is downward

500-300-800 = -600

displacement is a vector, meaning it has both DIRECTION and magnitude

(literally the only physics problem i can easily solve lol)

Answer:

\(\mid D \mid = 424.26\ m\)

Explanation:

Displacement

Suppose a moving object starts from point A and travels through a determined path to point B. The distance is the sum of all the partial distances traveled, and the displacement is the vector directed from A to B.

The path of the person is shown in the image below. Note the 500 m due north and the 800 m due south produce a distance of 300 m due south. The displacement vector D is the resultant of the whole movement.

To find the magnitude of the displacement, we need to calculate the hypotenuse of a triangle of sides 300 m (already described) and 300 m, marked in red.

The magnitude of D is:

\(\mid D \mid = \sqrt{300^2+300^2}\)

\(\mid D \mid = \sqrt{90000+90000}\)

\(\mid D \mid = \sqrt{180000}\)

\(\mid D \mid = 424.26\ m\)

Explanation: ΔL = τ(average) * Δt
Change in angular momentum = average torque * change in time

solve for average torque for each objects
τ(average) = ΔL / Δt

Object y average torque
τy = ΔLy / Δt = 20 / 5 = 4
τy = 4

Object x average torque
τx = ΔLx / Δt = 10 / 5 = 2
τx = 2

Relates τy and τx
2τx = τy

Two objects, X and Y, experience external net torques that vary over a period of 5 seconds. Object X has a moment of inertia I0, and Object Y has a moment of inertia 2I0. The average value of the magnitude of the external net torque exerted on Object X from time t=0 to t=5s is torquex. Similarly, the average value for ObjectY is torquey.

The magnitudes of the angular momenta L of Objects X and Y versus t are shown in the graph. The precise relation between torquey and torquex is torquey = 2 * torquex.

To relate torquey to torquex, we are able to use the concept of angular momentum and torque. Angular momentum is described because the manufactured from the moment of inertia and angular velocity:

L = I * ω

Differentiating this equation with an appreciation of time, we get:

dL/dt = d(I * ω)/dt

Using the product rule of differentiation, we've got:

dL/dt = I * dω/dt + ω * dI/dt

Now, we realize that torque (τ) is described because of the charge of the exchange of angular momentum:

τ = dL/dt

Substituting the expression for dL/dt in terms of angular velocity and second of inertia:

τ = I * dω/dt + ω * dI/dt

Let's denote the common price of torque for item X as torquex. Since object X has a moment of inertia I0, we can write:

torquex = I0 * dω/dt + ω * dI0/dt

Now, let's consider item Y. It has a moment of inertia 2I0. Using the identical expression, we will write:

torquey = (2I0) * dω/dt + ω * d(2I0)/dt

torquey = 2I0 * dω/dt + ω * (2 * dI0/dt)

torquey = 2I0 * dω/dt + 2ω * dI0/dt

Comparing the expressions for torquex and torquey, we will see that:

torquey = 2 * torquex

Therefore, the precise relation between torquey and torquex is;

torquey = 2 * torquex.

To know more about angular momentum and torque,

https://brainly.com/question/29897173

#SPJ1

The correct question is;

"Two objects, X and Y, experience external net torques that vary over a period of 5 seconds. Object X has a moment of inertia I0, and Object Y has a moment of inertia 2I0. The average value of the magnitude of the external net torque exerted on Object X from time t=0 to t=5s is torquex. Similarly, the average value for ObjectY is torquey. The magnitudes of the angular momenta L of Objects X and Y versus t are shown in the graph. Which of the following expressions correctly relates torquey to torquex?"

Explanation:

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Because I had a test on this

The graph below shows the motion of a person leaving theater, line segment C represent : The person is moving away from the theater.

In physics, motion is a change with time of the position or orientation of a body. Motion along a line or a curve is called as translation whereas motion that changes orientation of a body is called rotation.

Motion is a change in position of an object over the  time and is described in terms of displacement, distance, velocity, acceleration, time and speed.

Change in position of a body with time when compared with another body is known as  motion.

To know more about motion, refer

https://brainly.com/question/26083484

#SPJ1

The electron number cannot be used instead because electrons can be removed from or added to an atom (option C)

The element of an atom is determined by its proton count, while the electron count can exhibit variability. Take, for instance, a sodium atom, which encompasses 11 protons and 11 electrons. However, it has the capacity to relinquish one electron, transforming into a sodium ion housing only 10 electrons.

This occurs due to the relatively loose binding of electrons to the nucleus, enabling their removal through the influence of an electric field or alternative mechanisms.

Learn about electron here https://brainly.com/question/13998346

#SPJ1

For an ideal mixture of two or more substances, the mixing entropy can be derived based on the same principles as for ideal gases. The reason is that ideal mixtures also have particles that are in constant random motion, and the entropy of mixing is still related to the number of possible ways the particles can be arranged.

In an ideal mixture, the assumption is that the molecules of different substances are the same size and shape, and have the same intermolecular forces with each other as they do with their own kind. This means that there are no attractive or repulsive forces between particles of different types, which simplifies the calculation of the entropy of mixing.

The mixing entropy of an ideal mixture is determined by the number of possible ways the molecules of the two substances can be distributed among the available volume. Just as in the case of ideal gases, this leads to an increase in entropy when the two substances are mixed, as there are more ways to distribute the molecules than when they are separated.

Therefore, the concept of an ideal mixture allows us to apply the same principles of thermodynamics to denser systems as we do for ideal gases, which makes it a useful tool for studying a wide range of physical and chemical processes involving mixtures.

Learn more about ideal mixture below.

https://brainly.com/question/30611851

#SPJ1

The mixing entropy formula applies to ideal mixtures because there are no intermolecular forces between different species, there are no volume changes upon mixing, and the mixing is completely random.

An ideal mixture is a hypothetical mixture of gases, liquids or solids where the components are assumed to behave as an ideal gas, and where the two types of molecules are the same size and interact with each other in the same way as molecules of the same type (same forces, etc.). In an ideal mixture, the mixing entropy formula applies due to the following reasons:

Therefore, the mixing entropy formula applies to ideal mixtures because there are no intermolecular forces between different species, there are no volume changes upon mixing, and the mixing is completely random.

Learn more on entropy here https://brainly.com/question/419265

#SPJ1

The power dissipated by the 60-k Ohm resistor is 3 mv and 24mv.

\(=V_1=V =4mv\\=I_{iN}=\frac{4mv}{10k}=0.4\mu A\\= \frac{V_1 - V+}{50k}=0.4\mu A\\V_1 - 4m= 20m\\V_1 = 24mv\)

\(i_x=\frac{V_1}{20+(6 || 3)} =\frac{24*10^{-3}}{(20+2.857)*10^{3}}\\i_x=1.05\mu A\\i_0=\frac{i_x*60}{60+3}=1\mu A\\V_0=3k*1\mu=3mv\\V_0=3mv\)

An Ohm resistor is a passive electrical component that restricts the flow of current in an electrical circuit. It is named after Georg Simon Ohm, a German physicist who discovered Ohm's law which states that the current flowing through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage across the two points.

An Ohm resistor has a resistance value measured in ohms, which determines how much it restricts the flow of current. The higher the resistance value, the more it restricts the current flow. Ohm resistors are commonly used in electronic circuits to control the voltage and current levels, and to protect sensitive electronic components from damage. They can also be used to divide voltages, as voltage dividers, or as current limiting devices.

To learn more about Ohm resistor visit here:

brainly.com/question/1495664

#SPJ4

Complete Question: -

Calculate i_x and v_o in the circuit of Fig. 5.70. Find the power dissipated by the 60-k Ohm resistor.

Answer: While quantum physics is usually concerned with the basic building blocks of light and matter, for some time scientists have now been trying to investigate the quantum properties of larger objects, thereby probing the boundary between the quantum world and everyday life. For this purpose, particles are slowed down with the help of electromagnetic waves and the motional energy is drastically reduced. Therefore, one also speaks of "motional cooling."

Quantum properties occur when particles are cooled to their fundamental quantum ground state, that is to the lowest possible energy level. While so far the only way to cool particles to the ground state has been to make them interact with photons trapped in an electromagnetic resonator, theoretical physicists led by Carlos Gonzalez-Ballestero and Oriol Romero-Isart from the Department of Theoretical Physics at the University of Innsbruck and the Institute of Quantum Optics and Quantum Information (IQOQI) of the Austrian Academy of Sciences in collaboration with experimentalist Jan Gieseler from Harvard University and ICFO in Barcelona now propose to make the motion of magnetic particles interact with the internal acoustic waves that are confined inside every particle.

Explanation:

Sound waves in micro-magnets

In analogy to photons -- the quanta of light -- vibrations in a solid body can be described as so-called phonons. These small sound wave packets propagate through the crystal lattice of the solid. "The phonons are very isolated and interact with the movement of the particle motion only through magnetic waves," explains Carlos Gonzalez-Ballestero. "In our work we now show that this interaction can be controlled by a magnetic field." This allows to realize quantum experiments without photons, and therefore even with light-absorbing particles. "Conversely, we also show that the strong interaction between motion and phonons provides a path to probe and manipulate the elusive and exotic dynamics of acoustic and magnetic waves in very small particles," adds Oriol Romero-Isart. The new method also opens up new possibilities for quantum information processing, for example, by using phonons as a quantum memory.

Recall that

\({v_f}^2-{v_i}^2=2a\Delta x\)

where \(v_i\) and \(v_f\) are initial and final velocities, respectively; \(a\) is acceleration; and \(\Delta x\) is the net displacement, or distance if the object is moving in a single direction.

The car has initial speed 20 m/s and acceleration -3.25 m/s². It comes to a stop, so it has 0 final speed. Then

0² - (20 m/s)² = 2 (-3.25 m/s²) ∆x

∆x = (20 m/s)² / (7.5 m/s²) ≈ 53.3 m

To find:-

Answer:-

Gauss's law in electrostatics states that the electric flux through a closed surface is equal to 1/ε0 times the charge enclosed by that surface, that is,

\(\implies \displaystyle \phi_E = \oint \vec{E} .\vec{ds} \\\)

Also ,

\(\implies\displaystyle \oint \vec{E}.\vec{ds} =\dfrac{q}{\epsilon_0} \\\)

Linear density of charge:-

It ise defined as charge per unit length. Mathematically,

\(\implies\displaystyle \lambda =\dfrac{q}{\ell} \\\)

where ,

For figure see attachment.

Now let us assume that the linear density of charge is \(\lambda\) . There is a point P near the wire at a distance of " r " from it , where we are interested in calculating the electrical field. Imagine a coaxial Gaussian cylinder of length \(\ell\) , and radius " r " such that the point P lines on its surface.

Calculating Electrical flux through the cylinder:-

\(\implies\displaystyle \phi_E = 0 + 0 + \oint E.ds \\\)

\(\implies\displaystyle\phi_E = \oint E.ds \ \cos0^o \\\)

\(\implies\displaystyle \phi_E = \oint Eds \\\)

\(\implies\displaystyle \phi_E = E\oint ds \\\)

\(\implies\displaystyle \phi_E = E (2\pi r\ell) \ \ dots (1) \\\)

From Gauss's law:-

\(\implies\displaystyle \phi_E =\dfrac{q}{\epsilon_0} \\\)

\(\implies\displaystyle \phi_E = \dfrac{\lambda \ell}{\epsilon_0}\ \dots (2) \\\)

Therefore , from equation (1) and (2) , we have;

\(\implies\displaystyle E \times 2\pi r \ell =\dfrac{\lambda\ell}{\epsilon_0}\\\)

\(\implies\displaystyle \underline{\underline{\green{ E =\dfrac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0}\dfrac{2\lambda}{r}}}}\\\)

And we are done!

Answer: The scenario violates the second law of thermodynamics.

Explanation: The second law states that heat cannot be converted into work without some loss of usable energy, and that the amount of usable energy in a closed system will always decrease over time. Therefore, the machine described in the scenario cannot exist because it would violate the second law by converting all of the heat into electricity without any loss of usable energy.

Answer: -5×10-3

Explanation:

E=kq/r

Answer:

Dribbling

Explanation:

cuz yes, is answer took test