The main PUFAs found in menhaden oil are eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)
Menhaden oil is known for its high content of omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs).
The main PUFAs found in menhaden oil are eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA).
EPA and DHA are long-chain omega-3 fatty acids that are not efficiently synthesized by the human body in sufficient quantities. Therefore, it is essential to obtain them through dietary sources like fish oil.EPA plays a vital role in reducing inflammation in the body and supporting cardiovascular health.DHA is particularly important for brain health and development. It is a major component of the brain and plays a crucial role in cognitive function, memory, and overall brain health. EPA and DHA are essential nutrients that play crucial roles in brain function, cardiovascular health, and reducing inflammation in the body.Thus, Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) are the two primary PUFAs present in menhaden oil.
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bacitracin is made naturally by the bacterium bacillus subtilis and is primarily only used to target skin infections caused by gram-positive bacteria. this type of chemotherapeutic drug would best be characterized as a(n) .
bacitracin is made naturally by the bacterium bacillus subtilis and is primarily only used to target skin infections caused by gram-positive bacteria. this type of chemotherapeutic drug would best be characterized as a narrow-spectrum antibiotic.
What is narrow-spectrum antibiotic?Antibiotics with a narrow spectrum are effective against a certain subset of bacterial species. They are only able to affect gramme +ve or gramme -ve, not both.
When the etiological organism is identified, special narrow-spectrum antibiotics are administered. They won't eradicate as many common microorganisms as broad-spectrum antibiotics do. They prevent the spread of illnesses with medication resistance because they only affect a small number of extremely particular bacteria.
antibiotics that are particular to one type of bacteria, such as those that only kill gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria.
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what structure pull the chromosomes apart
Answer:
Spindles
Explanation:
brainliest?
Answer:
mitotic spindle
Explanation:
In animal cells, cytokinesis is accomplished by the formation of a Multiple choice question. cleavage furrow composed of tubulin filaments. cell plate composed of tubulin filaments. cell plate composed of actin filaments. cleavage furrow composed of actin filaments.
Cytokinesis is the process of cell division in which a single cell divides into two new daughter cells. In animal cells, cytokinesis is accomplished by the formation of a cleavage furrow composed of tubulin filaments.
Correct option is A.
Tubulin is a family of globular proteins whose primary function is to help organize and support the cells. During cytokinesis, tubulin filaments assemble themselves into a cleavage furrow which pinches the cell in half and separates it into two new cells. This cleavage furrow is capable of contracting and elongating just the same as any other cellular muscle.
It is an active process, meaning that energy must be expended in order to form the cleavage furrow. Tubulin filaments interact with other cellular organelles including vesicles, organelles, and proteins in order to successfully form the cleavage furrow and ultimately divide the cell in two.
Correct option is A.
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Why are dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates used during DNA sequencing?
(a) They cannot be incorporated into DNA by DNA polymerase.
(b) They are incorporated into DNA particularly well by DNA polymerases from thermophilic bacteria.
(c) Incorporation of a dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphate leads to the termination of replication for that strand.
(d) Dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates are more stable than deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates.
(c) Incorporation of a dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphate leads to the termination of replication for that strand.
Dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates are used during DNA sequencing because their incorporation into the growing DNA strand leads to the termination of replication for that particular strand. This happens because dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates lack the 3'-OH group necessary for the formation of a phosphodiester bond between the nucleotides. As a result, when a dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphate is incorporated into the growing DNA strand, the DNA polymerase is unable to add any further nucleotides, leading to the termination of replication at that point. This allows for the determination of the sequence of the DNA strand.
dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (ddNTPs) are used in DNA sequencing because they lack the 3'-hydroxyl group present on deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs). When a ddNTP is incorporated into a growing DNA strand by DNA polymerase, the lack of the 3'-hydroxyl group prevents the addition of the next nucleotide. This results in the termination of replication for that strand. By using a mix of dNTPs and ddNTPs labeled with different fluorescent tags, researchers can determine the sequence of the DNA strand based on the terminated fragments generated during the sequencing reaction.
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Place in the correct order the sequence of events resulting in the action potential for cardiac muscle cells
1) Na+ ions enter causing depolarization.
2) Depolarization causes opening of voltage-gated K+ channels.
3) Slow voltage gated-Ca2+ channels open causing a Ca2-induced Ca2 release
4) Plateau occurs
5) Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels close
6) Repolarization occurs returning to the resting membrane potential
Na+ ions enter the cell, causing depolarization of the membrane potential and opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels.
What is Na+ ions?Na+ ions are positively charged particles composed of one sodium atom. These ions are incredibly common, and are found in all types of environments, including oceans, lakes, and soil. Na+ ions are an essential component of many biochemical processes, including muscle contraction, nerve transmission, and osmotic pressure regulation. Na+ ions also play a key role in maintaining the acid-base balance of cells and tissues. In addition, Na+ ions are sometimes used to neutralize acids in industrial settings.
This depolarization causes voltage-gated K+ channels to open, resulting in a rapid efflux of K+ ions from the cell.
Slow voltage-gated Ca2+ channels then open, allowing Ca2+ to enter the cell and causing a Ca2+-induced Ca2+ release (CICR) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
This influx of Na+ and Ca2+ causes the membrane potential to reach its plateau phase.
The voltage-gated Ca2+ channels then close, halting the influx of Ca2+ into the cell.
Repolarization then occurs, as K+ channels remain open, allowing K+ to leave the cell and restoring the resting membrane potential.
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Why are offshore wind farms becoming more common then land based wind farms
Offshore wind farms are becoming more common than land-based wind farms due to several reasons. In this answer, we will discuss why offshore wind farms are gaining more popularity.
Firstly, offshore wind farms are less obstructive and intrusive than land-based wind farms. Offshore wind farms are usually located far from residential areas, unlike land-based wind farms, which may sometimes lead to complaints from local residents regarding noise and visual impact. With offshore wind farms, this is not a problem, and there are no visual impacts on the surrounding landscapes. Additionally, the noise generated by offshore wind farms is typically quieter, as the turbines are located further away from people.
Secondly, offshore wind farms have stronger and more consistent wind speeds. The wind speed over the ocean is usually stronger and more consistent compared to land. This is due to several reasons, including less turbulence over the ocean and no natural obstacles like mountains or trees that can obstruct the wind flow.
Thirdly, the scale of offshore wind farms is much larger than land-based wind farms. With more space available, wind farms can accommodate larger and more powerful turbines, generating more electricity. Larger wind turbines installed offshore have larger rotor diameters and can access stronger and more consistent winds, enabling them to generate more electricity than land-based turbines.
Finally, offshore wind farms have less visual impact than land-based wind farms. The turbines are much further away from the shore and are not visible to many people, so there is less visual impact. Offshore wind farms can be an attractive option for countries with limited land space and high electricity demand.
In conclusion, offshore wind farms are becoming more common than land-based wind farms due to their less obstructive nature, stronger and more consistent winds, larger scale, and less visual impact. These benefits make offshore wind farms an attractive option for countries seeking to generate more renewable energy and reduce carbon emissions.
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The film: Before the Flood
1.) What parts of iur economy rely heavily on fossil fuels?
2). What are the negative impacts of tar sanding mining?
3). When is it estimated that there will be no summer sea ice at the North Pole?
4.) How much of the thickness of Greenlands ice sheet has melted in the past 5 years?
5.) Describe "sunny day flooding"
6.) How many people in India are without access to electricity?
7.) What are some of the impacts of climate change on the worlds oceans?
8.) What percentage of agricultural food production land in the US is used to grow food for cattle?
9.) In the terms of the greenhouse effect, how many molecules of carbon dioxide are equivalent to just one molecule of methane?
10.) What is a carbon tax?
11.) When was the last time Earth was 4 degrees warmer than preindustrial temperatures?
12.) What ate steps that can be taken to mitigate climate changes?
"Before the Flood" is a documentary film that explores the issue of climate change and its impacts on the environment, societies, and future generations.
Parts of our economy heavily reliant on fossil fuels include transportation, electricity generation, manufacturing, and heating/cooling systems.Negative impacts of tar sands mining include habitat destruction, water pollution, greenhouse gas emissions, and disruption of indigenous communities.It is estimated that there will be no summer sea ice at the North Pole by the year 2040 or even sooner, according to climate models.In the past 5 years, approximately 4,000 gigatons (or 4 trillion metric tons) of ice has melted from the Greenland ice sheet."Sunny day flooding" refers to the phenomenon where coastal areas experience flooding during high tides without the presence of rainfall or storms, primarily due to rising sea levels.Approximately 100 million people in India still lack access to electricity, accounting for a significant portion of the population.Impacts of climate change on the world's oceans include rising sea levels, ocean acidification, coral bleaching, loss of biodiversity, and altered marine ecosystems.Approximately 40% of agricultural food production land in the US is used to grow food for cattle.In terms of the greenhouse effect, one molecule of methane is equivalent to about 28 to 36 molecules of carbon dioxide in terms of its warming potential over a 100-year period.A carbon tax is a fee imposed on the carbon content of fossil fuels or the carbon dioxide emissions produced by industries, aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions and incentivizing the transition to cleaner energy sources.Earth was last 4 degrees warmer than preindustrial temperatures around 5-8 million years ago during the Pliocene epoch.Steps to mitigate climate change include transitioning to renewable energy sources, increasing energy efficiency, reducing deforestation, promoting sustainable agriculture, adopting carbon capture technologies, and implementing international agreements to limit greenhouse gas emissions.Learn more about climate change here:
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1 List the features of the gaseous exchange surface in humans.
Explanation:
1. They are moist to prevent the cells from drying and to allow gasses to dissolve.
2. They have high concentration gradient, maintained by the movement of air and blood.
which one of the following is a combination of a disease, its pathogen, and the tissue type targeted by that pathogen?a.the flu, influenza, white blood cellsb.sickle cell anemia, malaria, red blood cellsc.vibrio cholerae, cholerae, small intestinesd.aids or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, hiv or human immunodeficiency virus, t cells
The combination of a disease, its pathogen, and the tissue type targeted by that pathogen is seen in option (C) - Vibrio cholerae, cholera, small intestines.
Vibrio cholerae is the pathogen responsible for causing cholera, a disease characterized by severe diarrhea and dehydration. Cholera primarily targets the small intestines, where the bacterium colonizes and releases toxins. When a person ingests food or water contaminated with Vibrio cholerae, the bacteria adhere to the lining of the small intestines and release cholera toxin. This toxin disrupts the normal functioning of the intestinal cells, leading to the characteristic watery diarrhea observed in cholera patients.
The other options do not match the requested combination. Option (A) describes the flu, caused by the influenza virus, but it targets the respiratory system rather than white blood cells. Option (B) associates sickle cell anemia with malaria, where the Plasmodium parasite infects and destroys red blood cells, but it does not target a specific tissue type. Option (D) relates AIDS to HIV, where the human immunodeficiency virus attacks and destroys CD4+ T cells, compromising the immune system, but it does not directly target a specific tissue type.
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The process of converting
into
that requires oxygen.
if you added the following vitamins to a glass of water, which one would float to the top and not dissolve? multiple choice biotin niacin b1 c d
Retinol, another name for vitamin A, is a fat-soluble vitamin that has long been linked to good vision and eye health. Liver, fish liver oil, and butter are the foods that have the highest amounts of vitamin A in the diet. Thus, option D is correct.
What is the soluble and insoluble vitamin?Fat-soluble vitamins are also stored in the liver and fatty tissue of the body, along with dietary fat absorption. Dietary supplements and a range of plant and animal diets both include them. Fat-soluble vitamins include A, D, E, and K.
Examples of fat-soluble vitamins include A, D, E, and K. The remaining vitamins are water-soluble (vitamins B and C).
Making a distinction between the two groups is crucial. It describes how each vitamin affects the body physiologically.
Therefore, Lipids are broken down by lipase enzymes.
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Which of the following conclusions did Mendel form as a result of his observations?
Mendel made the conclusion from his observations on the garden pea plant that for each and every trait in a population, a pair of alleles are present i.e., dominant and recessive allele. Thus, the correct option is B.
What was Mendel's law?Mendel did his experiments on the garden pea plant (pisum sativum) in which he found that for all the characters two different alleles are present in a population in which one allele is dominant on the other which is recessive. The dominant allele is represented by capital letter and is present in all the generations whereas the recessive allele is represented by small letter and often skips the generation.
Thus, by compiling the results of pea plants, Mendel concluded that the characteristics could be divided into two forms- expressed and latent traits. He called these traits as dominant and recessive traits, respectively.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
Which of the following conclusions did Mendel form as a result of his observations?
A. Incomplete dominance
B. Dominant and recessive alleles are present for each trait
C. masking of effects of gene
D. DNA as the genetic material
when watson and crick completed their model of dna, it became clear to them that a tremendous amount of heritable information could be carried on a dna molecule. what factor contributes the most to the holding power of a dna molecule?
The factor that contributes the most to the holding power of a DNA molecule, allowing it to carry a tremendous amount of heritable information, is its double helix structure and the specific base pairing of nucleotides.
1. Double helix structure: The DNA molecule is composed of two complementary strands that twist together to form a double helix. This structure not only provides stability but also enables efficient storage and packing of genetic information.
2. Specific base pairing of nucleotides: DNA consists of four types of nucleotides - adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G). These nucleotides form specific pairs: A with T and C with G. This base pairing, known as complementary base pairing, allows for accurate replication of heritable information during cell division.
In summary, the double helix structure and specific base pairing in a DNA molecule are crucial factors that contribute to its holding power and its ability to carry vast amounts of heritable information.
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express 7 mm in cm in math please tell me
Answer:
0.7cm
Explanation:
12 Which of the following best describes
the energy change that occurs when a
stretched rubber band is
suddenly released?
(1) kinetic to potential
(2) mechanical to potential
(3) potential to kinetic
(4) kinetic to mechanical
Compare the two ways in which earth was supplied with enough water to have an ocean. Which is likely to have contributed most of the water on Earth?
Answer:
One possible way is that the Earth held onto some water when it formed, as there would have been ice in the nebula of gas and dust (called the proto-solar nebula) that eventually formed the sun and the planets about 4.5 billion years ago. Another possible way is that some of that water has remained with the Earth, and might be recycled through the planet's mantle layer. I believe the proto-solar nebula is the most reasonable way since the features of all planets are brought by the elements that formed them; in this case, it was the nebula of gas and dust.
Explanation:
Hopefully this helped! :)
viral evolution theory states that viruses arose from loose strands of genetic material. group startstrue or falsetrue, unselectedfalse, unselected
Answer: true
Explanation:
The “virus-first” hypothesis states that viruses predated cells and contributed to the rise of cellular life. A significant proportion of all the viral genomes encode for genetic sequences that lack clear cellular homologs. Presence of such virus-specific sequences provides support to their unique origin.
Answer: True
Explanation:
Housing rats in a complex social environment with much stimulation leads to some changes in brain structure, including __________:
a) increased cortical mass.
b) all of the given answers
c) increased dendritic branching of cortical neurons.
d) prolonged neural health, well into senescence.
Housing rats in a complex social environment with much stimulation leads to some changes in brain structure, including b) all of the given answers.
Housing rats in a complex social environment with much stimulation can result in various changes in brain structure. These changes include increased cortical mass, increased dendritic branching of cortical neurons, and prolonged neural health, well into senescence. The complex social environment provides opportunities for social interactions, cognitive stimulation, and physical activity, which can lead to enhanced brain development and plasticity. Increased cortical mass suggests structural adaptations in the brain, potentially indicating improved cognitive abilities. The increased dendritic branching of cortical neurons signifies increased synaptic connections and neural complexity, which can enhance information processing and learning. Prolonged neural health into senescence suggests that the enriched environment may have a protective effect against age-related cognitive decline. Overall, a complex social environment with stimulation has a positive impact on brain structure in rats.
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how do scientists know that most galaxies are moving away from us? what is this evidence for?
Answer:
By using and testing Einstein's theory of General Relativity, scientists have observed galaxies moving away from Earth. ... After all, the Earth isn't a particularly special place in the universe. Instead, he discovered that almost all galaxies are moving away from us!
b) A typical asteroid has a density of about 2500 kg/m3 . Use your result from part (a) to estimate the radius of the largest asteroid from which you could reach escape speed just by jumping.
The radius of the largest asteroid from which we could reach escape speed just by jumping, assuming a density of 2500 kg/m³, is approximately 1.87 meters.
To estimate the radius of the largest asteroid from which you could reach escape speed just by jumping, we'll first need to determine the escape speed from the surface of the asteroid. The escape speed, ve, can be calculated using the formula,
ve = √(2GM/r)
M = (4/3)πr³ρ
Now, let's calculate the escape speed and find the maximum radius.
Density of the asteroid, ρ = 2500 kg/m³
We'll assume that you can reach an escape speed of approximately 4 m/s with a jump. This is a reasonable estimate for the maximum speed a human can achieve by jumping. Escape speed, ve = 4 m/s
Gravitational constant, G = 6.67430 × 10⁻¹¹ m³ kg⁻¹ s⁻²
First, let's calculate the mass of the asteroid using the density and the volume formula,
M = (4/3)πr³ρ
Assuming a spherical shape for the asteroid, we can rearrange the equation to solve for the radius,
r³ = (3M) / (4πρ)
r = ((3M) / (4πρ))⁰°³³
Now, substitute the values into the equation to find the radius,
r = ((3 * ve²) / (4πGρ))⁰°³³
r = ((3 * 4²) / (4π * 6.67430 × 10⁻¹¹ * 2500))⁰°³³
Calculating this expression, we find,
r ≈ 1.87 meters
Therefore, the radius of the largest asteroid from which you could reach escape speed just by jumping, based on the given density of 2500 kg/m³, is approximately 1.87 meters.
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Explain how HATs and HDACs can lead to the formation of cancer Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. Reset He HATs usually lead to gene active and HDACs usually lead to gene expressed in cancer cells if HATs are mutated then genes that are normally repressed to prevent cancer are now repression which can lead to cancer. In addition, in cancer cells if ADACs are mutated then genes that are normally inactive to suppress cancer will now be expression leading to cancer
HATs and HDACs are enzymes that are involved in the regulation of gene expression. HATs are responsible for adding acetyl groups to histone proteins, which leads to a more open chromatin structure and increased gene expression. On the other hand, HDACs remove these acetyl groups, leading to a more compact chromatin structure and decreased gene expression.
In cancer cells, mutations in HATs can lead to the activation of genes that are normally repressed to prevent cancer. This can result in the uncontrolled growth and division of cells, leading to the formation of tumors. Similarly, mutations in HDACs can lead to the expression of genes that are normally inactive and help to suppress the growth of cancer cells. This can also contribute to the development and progression of cancer.
Overall, the balance between HATs and HDACs is critical for maintaining proper gene expression and preventing the development of cancer. Mutations in either of these enzymes can disrupt this balance and contribute to the formation and progression of cancer. Therefore, targeting HATs and HDACs may be a potential strategy for the prevention and treatment of cancer.
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what is a determinant for organ compatibility and rejection of transplants?
The determinant for organ compatibility and rejection of transplants is the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), also known as human leukocyte antigen (HLA) in humans.
MHC is a group of genes that encode proteins found on the surface of cells that help the immune system recognize self from non-self. The MHC proteins play a crucial role in determining whether a transplanted organ is accepted or rejected by the recipient's immune system.
If the MHC molecules on the donor organ are recognized as foreign by the recipient's immune system, the immune cells will attack and destroy the transplanted organ, resulting in rejection. Therefore, before a transplant, doctors perform HLA typing on both the donor and recipient to ensure a good match, which can minimize the risk of rejection.
HLA matching is particularly important for solid organ transplants, such as kidneys, lungs, and hearts, as well as bone marrow transplants, where the immune system must be suppressed to prevent rejection.
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Hey I'm Kailey and i need help plzzz asap Based on your study of viruses which of the following is(are) a reason scientists give for saying that viruses are not living organisms?
Question 2 options:
They cannot reproduce without the aid of a host
They use energy but cannot metabolize food into energy
They do not have organized cells
All of the above WILL MARK BRAINLIEST!!!!
Answer:
The answer is that they cannot reproduce without a host or a living organism because by themselves they are virtually harmless
The first answer
Explanation:
which hollow tube transports air from the laryngeal pharynx to the bronchi?
The hollow tube that transports air from the laryngeal pharynx to the bronchi is called the trachea. The trachea, commonly known as the windpipe, is a tubular structure that plays a vital role in the respiratory system.
It serves as the conduit for air to pass from the laryngeal pharynx, located at the back of the throat, to the bronchi, which further branch into smaller airways within the lungs. The trachea is situated in front of the esophagus and is composed of C-shaped cartilaginous rings that provide structural support while allowing flexibility for swallowing and speaking.
The trachea begins at the inferior part of the laryngeal pharynx, where it connects to the larynx, and extends downwards towards the thoracic cavity, eventually dividing into the left and right bronchi, which enter the respective lungs. The inner lining of the trachea is lined with a specialized epithelium called pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium, which helps to trap and remove debris and microorganisms from the air, preventing them from reaching the delicate structures of the lungs.
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The data table shows the number of pumpkin seeds that germinate at different temperatures.
Effect of Temperature on Germination of Pumpkin Seeds
Temperature
Seeds germinated
Trial 1 Trial 2 Trial 3 Trial 4
20°C 60 63 70 62
24°C 75 87 82 78
28°C 86 84 83 84
32°C 69 64 63 66
What is the mode of the data at 28°C?
A.
84.25
B.
83.5
C.
85
D.
84
The mode of the data at 28°C is 84. The correct option is D.
What is a mode?In statistics, the mode is the variate with the highest frequency of occurrence in a given data. The mode is one of the attributes used to measure how centralized the variates within a data set are.
Mode is used as a measure of central tendency because:
It is very easy to calculateIt is not affected by outliersIt is useful to define the properties of a data setIn this case, we are to find the mode of the data at 28°C. The data at this location is 86, 84, 83, and 84.
86 occur just once, 84 occur twice, while 83 also occur just once in the 4 elements data set.
Thus, the mode here is 84 which occurs twice.
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A euglena is a unicellular organism. Choose an everyday object, such as a car, to use as a model of this euglena. Explain how the parts of the object model how the euglena's cell parts help it stay alive.
Structure of Euglena
Read the assignment carefully and make sure you answer each part of the question or questions.
After you've written your response, go back and read it again to make sure your thoughts are clear.
Text that reads: Final draft.
An illustration of a box with a tick mark. Text that reads: Scoring Rubric.
This activity is worth 10 points. The length of your response will depend on the type of question. Responses should be written in complete sentences, illustrated with labeled diagrams, and/or calculated with all work shown.
You can use this general rubric for guidance on how your responses will be scored by your teacher. Once scoring is complete, your teacher will provide you with feedback on your performance.
Points awarded Description
Full points The response addresses all parts of the question completely and correctly.
Partial points The response is incomplete or partially incorrect.
No points The response is incorrect, it does not match the question, or no response is given.
Teacher score: _______ out of 10
The functions of different parts of the car to the functions of different organelles in the euglena.
How can a car model be used to show how the organelles of the unicellular euglena helps it to stay alive?The engine of the car can be compared to the chloroplasts in the euglena, as both are responsible for generating energy. Chloroplasts use photosynthesis to convert sunlight into energy-rich molecules such as glucose, while the engine of the car converts the energy stored in fuel into kinetic energy that can be used to power the car.
The wheels of the car can be compared to the flagella in the euglena, as both are involved in movement. The flagella of the euglena are long, whip-like structures that help it to move through water, while the wheels of the car allow it to move along roads.
The headlights of the car can be compared to the eyespot in the euglena, as both are involved in detecting and responding to light. The eyespot in the euglena is a pigmented structure that helps it to sense the direction of light and move towards it, while the headlights of the car allow the driver to see in low-light conditions.
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A response is a _______________ to a stimulus. • A stimulus is anything that can cause an individual to respond or react. • Stimuli can be _________ or ____________ .
Answer:
A response is a _reaction to a stimulus. • A stimulus is anything that can cause an individual to respond or react. • Stimuli can be _internal or external.
Explanation:
A change in the cellular make up of an organisms due to response or reaction to a stimulus is called a response. This response can be due to a stimulus inside the body , or due to effect of an external ( stimulus) object on the body-stepping on a sharp pin.
In either cases, the stimulus is receive by the receptors, which transfer the stimulus through the sensory neuron to the inter neuron in the CNS, for the motor neuron to bring an effective response at the effectors.
Which action is not an example of someone maintaining homeostasis?
1. a woman breathing hard while jogging
2. a man bleeding from a cut
3. a girl sweating because it's hot outside
4. a boy shivering in the cold
Answer:
2 is the answer
Explanation:
because f
Answer: The answer is 2. A man bleeding from a cut.
Explanation: I took the quiz just now; this is the correct answer.
Hydropathy plots can be used to predict ... extracellular fibrous proteins isoelectric points of proteins integral membrane proteins open reading frames in DNA
Hydropathy plots can be used to predict the location of proteins in the cell membrane. Hydropathy plots are a graphical representation of the hydrophobicity/hydrophilicity profile of a protein sequence.
Proteins, especially integral membrane proteins, have a unique sequence that determines their location within the cell membrane. These hydropathy plots assist in identifying the hydrophobicity of the protein at different regions of the amino acid sequence.
Hydropathy plots can predict whether a protein will have a transmembrane domain, which is important for integral membrane proteins.
The hydropathy index is used to measure the hydrophobicity of amino acids. By analyzing the hydropathy index, it is possible to identify transmembrane domains and amphipathic regions in proteins. Hydrophobic amino acids tend to be located within the membrane and can be used to predict the location of a protein.
Hydropathy plots can be generated using various software packages and tools, such as the Kyte-Doolittle hydropathy plot.
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Can someone help me, please?
The chromosome set 21 show nondisjunction.
What is a chromosome?
Under a light microscope, chromosomes are typically only discernible during the metaphase of cell division (where all chromosomes are aligned in the center of the cell in their condensed form).Prior to this, each chromosome undergoes a process known as chromosome duplication (S phase), during which a centromere connects both copies, forming either the X-shaped structure shown above (if the centromere is situated equatorially) or a two-arm structure (if it is situated distally) depending on where it is situated.Sister chromatids are the new name for the linked copies.A metaphase chromosome is an X-shaped structure that forms during metaphase and is highly compressed, making it the easiest to recognise and study.Chromosomes in animal cells attain their maximum level of compaction during chromosome segregation, or anaphase.To know more about chromosome, click the link given below:
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