Amber is trying to solve 3x^2-4x=0. using a graphical method. She therefore starts by drawing the graph of y=3x^2 on a grid (shown below). She now intends to complete her method by drawing a straight line graph on the same grid. Complete Amber's method to solve 3x^2-4x=0

The empirical rule states that in a normal distribution, 68% of the observations lie within 1 standard deviation from the mean, 95% of the observations lie within 2 standard deviations from the mean, and , 99.7% of the observations lie within 3 standard deviations from the mean.

a) -  Mean = U = 330 grams

standard deviation= \(\sigma=40 \: grams\)

As per the empirical rule, 68% of the observations lie within 1 standard deviation from the mean.

Let \(X_1\) and \(X_2\) be the 2 random value, between which 68% of the observations lie.

Mathematically,

\(X1=U-\sigma\)

\(X1\) = 330 - 40

\(X1\) =  290

Similarly,

\(X1=U-\sigma\)

\(X1\) = 330 + 40

\(X1\) = 370

Thus, about 68 % of organs will be between 290 and 370 grams in weight.

b) - In this, we need to find the percentage of organs weighing between 250 grams and 410 grams.

We can rewrite 250 as follows:

250= 330− 80 ⇒ 30−2(40) ⇒ 330−2(σ)

The above value (250) lies within 2 standard deviations from the mean.

Similarly,

We can rewrite 410 as follows:

410 = 330+80 ⇒ 330+2(40) ⇒ 330+2(σ)

The above value (410) lies within 2 standard deviations from the mean.\

As per the empirical rule, 95% of the observations lie within 2 standard deviations from the mean.

Thus, 95% of organs weighs between 250 grams and 410 grams.

c)-As we have calculated in part(b) that 95% of the organs lie within 250 and 410 grams.

So, area outside these values = Total area under curve - 95%

= 100 - 95 ⇒ 5%

So, 5% of the area lies outside the 250 and 410 grams range.

From the property of normal curve, we know that the area under the curve is divided into 2 equal parts.So, we divide the area- 5% into 2 equal parts which gives 2.5%.

Learn more about  standard deviations

brainly.com/question/23907081

#SPJ4

Answer:

2/5 +30i

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

i dont knoew

Step-by-step explanation:

BC is the common side of both the triangles.

Answer:

BC

Step-by-step explanation:

Common side in both triangles is BC

    Sides of ΔABC,

                   AB ;  BC  and AC

   Sides of ΔDCB,

                  DC, BC and DB

Using the continuity concept, since the lateral limits and the numeric value of the function are equal at the point in which the definition changes, the function is continuous.

A function f(x) is continuous at x = a if it is defined at x = a, and:

\(\lim_{x \rightarrow a^-} f(x) = \lim_{x \rightarrow a^+} f(x) = f(a)\)

The definition of the piecewise function is given by:

Since the definition of the function changes at x = 2, and the domain of the function has no restrictions, this is the only point in which there may be a discontinuity.

The lateral limits are:

The numeric value is:

f(2) = 1.5 x 2 = 3.

Since the lateral limits and the numeric value of the function are equal at the point in which the definition changes, the function is continuous.

More can be learned about the continuity concept at https://brainly.com/question/24637240

#SPJ1

Answer:

2nd Choice

Step-by-step explanation:

because in SAS, we use 2 sides and the angle between them

The part used to prove the triangles are similar using SAS similarity is

<I = <F.

If the proportion of the two sides of one triangle is the same as the proportion of the two sides of another triangle, and the angle inscribed by the two sides of both triangles is equal, two triangles are said to be similar.

The three-sided polygon is the triangle. The following is the criteria for triangle similarity:

To prove for SAS similarity, we need ratio of two corresponding sides of two triangles equal.

and, one angle which is in between the sides used for ratio.

As,  ratios of corresponding sides in the two triangles are equal.

FG / IJ = GE / JH = EF / IH

So, the angle will be <I = <F.

Learn more about Similarity here:

https://brainly.com/question/26451866

#SPJ7

Angela's score is in the 87th percentile, which means that 87% of the scores were at or below her score.

To calculate the percentage of scores above her score, we subtract 87% from 100%. Therefore, the percentage of scores above Angela's score is 13%.

In summary, Angela's score is at or below 87% of the scores, and 13% of the scores are above her score. The percentile score indicates the percentage of scores that fall below a particular score. Therefore, Angela performed better than 87% of the test takers who took the aptitude test in accounting.

For more questions like Percentile click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/13638390

#SPJ11

Using the Counting the faces of two dice,

the atleast 17 number of faces are possible on the combination of two dice.

First, we have to count the favorable cases,

We know both dice have atleast 6 faces.

It gives 6 favorable cases for a sum of 7.

If we can count them if mean even if dice had more than 6 faces, will matter of for sum of 7.

Now, the mean, we need 6× 4/3=8 (favorable cases for the sum of 10)

If we count 3 favorable cases for each having 6 faces.

For more than 9 faces on a dice matter give the denominator (sample space) are the same for both sum of 7 and the sum of 10, and the probability of one is in proportion to the other.

It mean, additional 5 cases must be ( 7,2), (2,7), (8,2), (2,8) ,(9,1)

So , one of the dice has 8 faces and the other has atleast 9 faces.

Now, we must have atleast 17 combined faces of two dice for probability . So, we get if 12 with configration of 8 faces on one dice.

To learn more about Counting faces of combined dice, refer:

https://brainly.com/question/1302068

#SPJ4

The correct answer is: 4.75; a puppy who is just born is predicted to weigh 4.75 ounces.

The slope intercept form of a line is y=mx+b, where m is slope and b is the y intercept.

The equation of the line of fit is w = 4.75 + 0.5d, where w is the weight of the puppy in ounces and d is the age of the puppy in days.

The w-intercept of the line of fit is the value of w when d = 0, that is, the predicted weight of a puppy when it is just born.

From the equation, we see that when d = 0, we have:

w = 4.75 + 0.5(0) = 4.75

Therefore, the w-intercept of the line of fit is 4.75 ounces, and its meaning in terms of the scenario is that a puppy who is just born is predicted to weigh 4.75 ounces.

So, the correct answer is: 4.75; a puppy who is just born is predicted to weigh 4.75 ounces.

To learn more on slope intercept form click:

https://brainly.com/question/9682526

#SPJ1

Answer:

1. D) Both b) and c)

2. B) Cosine Law

3. B) Find the measures of angles and sides that we can't physically measure.

Step-by-step explanation:

1. To solve non-right triangles we use Sine Law and Cosine Law.

2. If 3 sides lengths were given and you were asked to find an angle, you would use the Cosine Law.

3.Trigonometry is used in real life to find the measures of angles and sides that we can't physically measure.

Answer:

31 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we have 8 competitors with the previous runner outrunning the present by 9 seconds

1st runner time = 4 minutes 37 seconds

2nd runner time = 4 minutes 37 seconds - 9 seconds = 4 minutes 28 seconds

3rd runner time = 4 minutes 28 seconds - 9 seconds = 4 minutes 19 seconds

4th runner time = 4 minutes 19 seconds - 9 seconds = 4 minutes 10 seconds

5th runner time = 4 minutes 10 seconds - 9 seconds = 4 minutes 1 second

6th runner time s= 4 minutes 1 second - 9 seconds = 3 minutes 52 seconds

7th runner time = 3 minutes 52 seconds - 9 seconds = 3 minutes 43 seconds

8th runner time = 3 minutes 43 seconds - 9 seconds = 3 minutes 34 seconds

The total time is the addition of all the times

For clarity sake, we shall be adding all the minutes together and all the seconds together;

That will be ;

(4 * 6) + 3 minutes + ( 34 + 43 + 52 + 1 + 10 + 19 + 28 + 37)

= 27 minutes + 224 seconds

We need to convert 224 seconds to minutes

Since 60 seconds make one minute; we have

224 - 60(3) = 3 minutes and 44 seconds

Let’s add this to the minutes we had before

That would be;

27 minutes + 3 minutes + 44 seconds

= 30 minutes 44 seconds

since 44 seconds is greater than 1/2 minute (30 seconds), we can approximate it to 1 minute

So the total time is 30 minutes + 1 minute = 31 minutes

Answer:1 4/16

Step-by-step explanation: Theres 1 circle thats all shaded so thats a whole then you got the other circle and thats shaded 4.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

the circle with all the yellow is a whole so that is 1 the circle with only 4 in yellow is 4 right now we have 1 and 4, then you will count the circle thats NOT FULL and you will get 16. so the answer is 1 4/16

The probability that a continuous random variable is equal to a single number zero because the area under a continuous probability density function (pdf) between any two points, even two extremely close points, is never equal to zero.

In other words, since the continuous random variable is infinite and continuous, the probability that it is equal to a single value is almost zero.

Steps in Hypothesis Testing:State the null and alternative hypotheses.Calculate the test statistic.

Determine the critical value or p-value.Calculate the p-value, if necessary.Make a decision and interpret the results.

for such more questions on continuous random variable

https://brainly.com/question/17217746

#SPJ11

The probability of a female student studying abroad is 9.5%. 60% of those who study abroad are female, while 49% of those who do not study abroad are female.

P(Female studying abroad) = P(Female and Studying Abroad) / P(Female)

P(Female and Studying Abroad) = 0.095 × 0.60 = 0.057

P(Female) = 0.095 × 0.60 + 0.905 × 0.49 = 0.902

P(Female studying abroad) = 0.057 / 0.902 = 0.063

Therefore, the probability of a female student studying abroad is 0.063.

The probability of a female student studying abroad is 9.5%. This means that out of all the undergraduate students, 9.5% of them are female and are studying abroad. It is also important to note that out of those who study abroad, 60% are female, while 49% of those who do not study abroad are female. This means that more female students are likely to study abroad than male students, as the percentage of female students studying abroad is higher than the percentage of male students studying abroad. It is also important to note that the overall percentage of female students studying abroad is lower than the overall percentage of male students studying abroad, as the number of female students who study abroad is lower than the number of male students who study abroad. Therefore, the probability of a female student studying abroad is 9.5%.

Learn more about probability here

https://brainly.com/question/11234923

#SPJ4

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

600

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2 means half so if you multiply 300 kilometres by 2 = 600

Answer: 600km/h

Step by step explanation:

1/2h = 0.5h

Speed in km/h

= 300/0.5

= 600km/h

Step-by-step explanation:

fair coin is two sided Head H and Tail T

thrown 3 times

number of sample space n(s)=2³=>8

sample space (s)={HHH,HHT,HTH,HTT,THH,TTH,THT,TTT}

no of a head and two tails= 3/8

Answer:

(a) 30 + Points = 50 so Points = 20

(b) 36 + Points = 50 so Points = 14

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve both parts a and b, you are asked to set up an addition problem and solve for the unknown. you are given the current points and the number of points you need to get there. your equation should look like the following:

(Point currently have) + (points still needed) = (total needed)

insert in your info:

(a) 30 + (points still needed) = 50

(b) 36 + (points still needed) = 50

rearrange to solve by subtracting the current points from the total points needed:

(a) points still needed = 50 - 30 = 20

(b) points still needed = 50 - 36 =14

HOPE THIS HELPS AND MAKES SENSE!!!

Answer:

100

Step-by-step explanation:

Because 127 rounded is to 100, as if it goes over 150 then round it to 200 , but if it goes lower than 150 then it's 100.

Answer: y=-6/5x+3

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the equation of the line that passes through the points, you want to first find the slope by using the formula \(m=\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}\), then solve for the y-intercept.

\(m=\frac{15-(-3)}{-10-5} =\frac{18}{-15} =-\frac{6}{5}\)

Now that we have the slope, we can plug in a given point and solve for the y-intercept.

15=-6/5(-10)+b        [multiply]

15=12+b                   [subtract both sides by 12]

b=3

Now that we have the y-intercept, we know the equation is y=-6/5x+3.

Answer:

Angelica’s house is 7.81 miles from the gas station

Step-by-step explanation:

By pythogorean theorem, AG² = AP² + GP²

A (4,3), G(10,8), P(10,3)

Since AP lies along the x axis, the distance is calculated using the x coordinates of A and P

AP = 10 - 4 = 6

GP lies along the y axis, so the distance is calculated using the y coordinates of G and P

GP = 8 - 3 = 5

AG² = 6² + 5²

= 36 + 25

AG² = 61

AG = √61

AG = 7.81

Answer:

exact form : \(\frac{16}{3}\)

decimal form : 5.3

mixed number form : \(5\frac{1}{3}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

11 sq units

Step-by-step explanation:

(6×4) - ½(6×1 + 4×3 + 2×4)

= 24 - ½(6+12+8)

= 24 - ½(26)

= 24-13

= 11 sq units

Answer:

figure 1 and figure 2 AA theorem

figure 3 and figure 4 SAS theorem

The required result of the sliding filament model given below.

The mechanism by which muscles contract is described by the sliding filament model. Actin and myosin myofilaments move over one another as a result of a cycle of repeated occurrences, constricting the sarcomere and creating tension in the muscle.

The A band is the middle, darkly pigmented area of the sarcomere that runs the entire length of the thick filaments. The portion of the thin filaments that cross over the thick filaments is also included. The I band is formed by the remaining thin filaments within the sarcomere but not by any thick filaments. Each A band has a narrow region in the middle called the H zone, which is made up entirely of dense filaments.

Myosin heads pull the thin filaments in the direction of the M line during muscle contraction. Because of this, the thin filaments glide inward, allowing their ends to overlap and connect at the sarcomere's core. The I band and H zone become smaller as a result.

To learn more about the sliding filament model from the give link

https://brainly.com/question/2061746

#SPJ4

Answer:

36 3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

I understand now why it was wrong. I am so very sorry and I fixed the answer

Volume = L•W•H

3 1/2 • 7 • 1 1/2 = 36 3/4

.75 = 3/4

The factors of the given expression 4x² + 28x + 49 is (2x + 7)(2x + 7).

Given polynomial is 4x2 + 28x + 49

Factoring polynomials is done in many ways. The four significant methods of factoring polynomials are as follows.

Method of Common Factors

Grouping Method

Factoring by splitting terms

Factoring Using Algebraic Identities

Let us operate the algebraic identity to factor this.

⇒ 4x² + 28x + 7²

⇒ 4x² + 2(14)(x) + 7²

⇒ (2x)² + 2(2x)(7) + 7²

This is similar to a² + 2ab + b² = (a + b)²

⇒ (2x + 7)²

⇒ (2x + 7)(2x + 7)

To know more about algebraic identity, here

https://brainly.com/question/28853516

#SPJ4

a) The regression equation for the given data is Overhead Costs = 231,000 + 47.8 × Billable Hours

b) The coefficients of the regression model are b₀ = 231,000 and b₁ = 47.8

a. To develop a simple linear regression model between billable hours and overhead costs, we can use the following formula

Overhead Costs = b₀ + b₁ × Billable Hours

where b₀ is the intercept and b₁ is the slope of the regression line. We can use a statistical software or a spreadsheet program to obtain the regression coefficients. For these data, the regression equation is

Overhead Costs = 231,000 + 47.8 × Billable Hours

b. The coefficients of the regression model are b₀ = 231,000 and b₁ = 47.8. The fixed component of the model (b₀) represents the overhead costs that the consulting firm incurs regardless of the billable hours. This can include expenses such as rent, utilities, salaries, and other fixed costs.

In this case, the fixed component is $231,000, which represents the overhead costs that the firm has to pay even if they do not bill any hours to clients. The slope of the regression line (b₁) represents the change in overhead costs for each additional billable hour. In this case, the slope is 47.8.

Learn more about regression equation here

brainly.com/question/30738733

#SPJ4