Answer:
Avascular tissues are tissues that are devoid of any blood supply by arteries,veins or capillaries these such type of tissues will ten d to be present right to a next highly vascular tissue through which it can revive nutrients and circulation.
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hurryyy!!! do all questions for crown thank you very much
The ability to taste PTC is due to a single dominant allele "T". You sampled 215 individuals in a biology class, and determined that f150 could detect the bitter taste of PTC and 65 could not.
What is the predicted frequency of the recessive allele (t)?
What is the predicted frequency of dominant allele (T)?
In a population of 10,000 people, how many would be heterozygous (assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium)? Homozygous dominant? Homozygous recessive? Calculate all of the potential frequencies.
The ability to taste PTC is due to a single dominant allele "T". You sampled 215 individuals in a biology class, and determined that 150 could detect the bitter taste of PTC and 65 could not.
What is a dominant allele?Generally, To calculate the predicted frequency of the recessive allele (t), we use the equation:
f(t) = 1 - f(T)
where f(T) is the frequency of the dominant allele (T).
To find f(T), we use the equation:
f(T) = (number of individuals who can taste PTC / total number of individuals sampled)
f(T) = 150/215
= 0.7
f(t) = 1 - 0.7
= 0.3
The predicted frequency of the dominant allele (T) is 0.7
In a population of 10,000 people, assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, we can use the following equations to find the number of individuals who are heterozygous, homozygous dominant, and homozygous recessive:
f(TT) = (f(T))^2 f(TT) = (0.7)^2 = 0.49
f(tt) = (f(t))^2 f(tt) = (0.3)^2 = 0.09
f(Tt) = 2 * f(T) * f(t) f(Tt) = 2 * 0.7 * 0.3 = 0.42
Homozygous dominant = 4900 people Homozygous recessive = 900 people Heterozygous = 4200 people
Please note that these predictions are based on the assumption that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and not influenced by any external factors such as mutation or natural selection.
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Why do you think the Limestone Gorge has the lowest biodiversity index?
Answer:
a site with few potential niches where only a few species dominate
Answer:
Biodiversity refers to the number of biological species that exist in a given region. High biodiversity means that a region supports a wide variety of species, while low biodiversity implies that an area supports only a few.
Explanation:
have great day
Casimir recently purchased an old car. He notices the rims have some spots of rust on them. So, he goes to an automotive shop and chooses a product that is recommended for removing rust. Which acid is most likely to be found in the product? hydrofluoric acid sulfuric acid hydrochloric acid nitric acid
Answer: Hydrochloric acid
Explanation:
edge 2021
Answer:
Just here confirming that the answer is hydrochloric acid.
Explanation:
what are the important roles and relationships between organisms in each ecosystem?
Why does darkness affect the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis
Answer:
Explanation:
Why does darkness affect the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis? Plants stop their daytime activities and rest during the night much like animals do. ... Light independent reactions require the energy gathered in the thylakoids. Mitochondria produce sugars more effectively in the darkness than chloroplasts do
Sketch out a drawing which illustrates how diffusion occurs through a slab in a Fick's.first law model and for a second law model. Explain your model in words.
Fick's second law provides a more thorough explanation of diffusion by taking into account the change in concentration with regard to both time and position. Fick's first law defines the diffusion of a material across a medium, such as a slab, based on concentration gradients.
Fick's first law states that the rate of diffusion (J) is directly proportional to the negative gradient of the concentration (dC/dx), multiplied by the diffusion coefficient (D). Mathematically, it can be expressed as:
J = -D x (dC/dx)
Let's picture a rectangle shape to symbolize a slab in this situation. With higher concentrations on one side and lower concentrations on the other, the concentration of the diffusing chemical is shown as a gradient. Fick's first law states that until equilibrium is established, the material will move from the side with higher concentration to the side with lower concentration.
Fick's Second Law states that the rate of change of concentration (dC/dt) over time is equal to the diffusion coefficient (D) multiplied by the second derivative of the concentration with respect to position (d²C/dx²). Mathematically, it can be expressed as:
dC/dt = D x (d²C/dx²)
In the case of a slab, the concentration gradient is represented by a curve showing how the concentration changes over time and position. Fick's second law explains how the concentration distribution evolves over time due to the diffusion process. It describes how the concentration diffuses and spreads out within the slab, eventually leading to a more uniform distribution.
By comparing the two models, we can see that Fick's first law focuses on the flux of diffusion, which depends on the concentration gradient. Fick's second law, on the other hand, provides a more comprehensive understanding of how the concentration changes over time and position within the slab.
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Define photophosphorylation?
The photophosphorylation is the synthesis of ATP from ADP and phosphate in the plants using the light energy absorbed during the photosynthesis process.
: Chemiosmosis is: a) When a large concentration gradient exists for Na+ between the inner and outer mitochondria membranes, this describes: b) Glycolysis c) When a large concentyration gradient exists for k+ between the inner and outer mitochondira membranes, this describes. d) ATP catabolism e) when a large concentration gradient exists for H + between the inner and outer mitochondira membranes.
Chemiosmosis is the process by which ATP is produced in the mitochondria through the movement of ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane. When a large concentration gradient exists for H+ between the inner and outer mitochondria membranes, this describes the process of chemiosmosis.
This occurs during oxidative phosphorylation, where H+ ions are pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space, creating a proton gradient. This gradient is then used by ATP synthase to produce ATP. Option a and c are incorrect as they describe concentration gradients of Na+ and K+, which are not involved in the process of chemiosmosis. Glycolysis and ATP catabolism are also not directly related to chemiosmosis. The process of ATP synthesis using ‘free energy’ obtained when electrons are passed to several carriers (ETC) is known as chemiosmosis. The actual point of the synthesis of ATP takes place when electrons pass the inner mitochondrial membrane. Energy is released within this process, resulting in the synthesis of ATP.
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which one is not a relational dialectics? autonomy/connectedness novelty/predictability compromising/understanding openness/closeness
Compromising/Understanding is not a relational dialectic. Relational dialectics refer to the tensions and contradictions that exist within relationships.
These tensions are often characterized by opposing needs or desires. Autonomy/Connectedness, Novelty/Predictability, and Openness/Closeness are all examples of relational dialectics.
Autonomy/Connectedness refers to the tension between the desire for independence and individuality versus the need for connection and interdependence in a relationship. Novelty/Predictability relates to the tension between the desire for excitement, change, and exploration versus the need for stability, routine, and predictability. Openness/Closeness reflects the tension between the desire for openness, disclosure, and sharing versus the need for privacy, boundaries, and protection.
However, compromising/understanding is not typically recognized as a relational dialectic. While compromise and understanding are important aspects of a healthy relationship, they do not represent opposing needs or desires in the same way that the other dialectics do. Instead, compromising and understanding are often seen as strategies or skills used to manage and address the tensions arising from other relational dialectics.
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what best describes a rho-independent termination of transcription?
a. DNA sequence is recognized by the termination factor rho (p)
b. an RNA secondary structure is recognized by the termination factor rho (p) c. DNA sequence is recognized by RNA polymerase d. an RNA hairpin structure is formed, triggering the release of RNA polymerase
The best option that describes a rho-independent termination of transcription is d. an RNA hairpin structure is formed, triggering the release of RNA polymerase.
What is rho-independent transcription termination?The rho-independent transcription termination is described as the mechanism of bacterial transcription termination, where the transcription process is terminated by the formation of an RNA hairpin structure. In this mechanism, the RNA hairpin structure forms at the end of the transcription unit, and it functions as a termination signal. The formation of an RNA hairpin structure is necessary to trigger the release of RNA polymerase from the DNA template.
How does rho-independent termination work?Rho-independent termination works by creating an RNA hairpin structure that functions as a signal for RNA polymerase to terminate the transcription process. Here is the process: During transcription, RNA polymerase reads through the DNA template until it reaches the end of the transcription unit. When RNA polymerase reaches the end of the transcription unit, the RNA hairpin structure forms due to the complementary base pairing between the nucleotides of the RNA molecule. The hairpin structure consists of a stretch of U's at the 3' end of the transcript, followed by a GC-rich region that forms a hairpin structure.
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Which best explains how and why scientific knowledge continually expanded and improved
Answer:
Which best explains how and why scientific knowledge is continually expanded and improved? The scientific process flows in one direction and finds only facts that support a scientist's original idea. The scientific process is cyclical so that new facts inspire questions that lead to new studies.
Explanation:
Brainlist???
List the seven major fish body forms. For three of the seven body forms, briefly
describe how physical characteristics are related to the habitat and niche of fish
species in that category.
The seven major fish body forms are- fusiform, compressiform, anguilliform, filiform, depressiform, sagittiform, and globiform.
Below are the descriptions of the three body forms and how their physical characteristics are related to their habitat and niches:Fusiform body form: This body form has a streamlined shape that allows for easy movement through the water. It is most commonly found in open-water fish, such as tuna and mackerel, that need to move quickly to catch prey and avoid predators. Its narrow shape reduces drag, which increases its swimming speed. The fusiform body form is particularly adapted for fast swimming, and it is typically found in fish that are pelagic (live in open water).
Compressiform body form: This body form is flattened from side to side, which gives the fish a ribbon-like appearance. The compressiform body form is well adapted to moving through the water by means of quick, darting movements. They are generally found in areas of shallow water or near the bottom of the sea floor, where they can quickly move to escape danger. For example, eels use the compressiform body form to move quickly through small crevices.Anguilliform body form: This body form is characterized by a long, thin shape that allows the fish to easily move through the water.
This body form is found in fish like eels, which live in narrow spaces such as burrows, rock crevices, or coral reefs. The elongated and flexible body structure of anguilliform fish enables them to move through complex environments easily.In summary, the physical characteristics of fish are related to their habitats and niches. Each of these three body forms is adapted to different environments, from open water to rocky crevices, and each is suited to a different type of swimming or movement.
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Which of these is a negative form of a plant tropism?
1.shoot gravitropism
2.phototropism
3.pea plant thigmotropism
4.root gravitropism
The negative form of a plant tropism is the shoot gravitropism. Therefore, the correct option is 1.
What is plant tropism?Plant tropism is a biological phenomenon in which a plant organism grows or bends in response to a stimulus, such as light or gravity.
There are several types of plant tropisms, including:
Phototropism: This is the growth response of a plant to light.Gravitropism: This is the growth response of a plant to gravity.Hydrotropism:This is the growth response of a plant to moisture. Thigmotropism:This is the growth response of a plant to touch.Shoot gravitropism is a negative form of plant tropism, as here the shoot is growing upwards against the pull of gravity. Hence, the correct option is 1.
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Which property of sodium
is not typical metal
,
Explanation:
It's a soft metal, reactive and with a low melting point, with a relative density of 0,97 at 20ºC (68ºF).
Ferns, such as the one in the picture, can be found today. They are usually found
growing in warmer climates. However, fossils of ferns have been found in places with
cold climates where it often snows today. What can we conclude about the places
where the fossils of ferns have been found?
A. Ferns used to live in cold climates.
B. These places once had a warmer climate.
C. Someone tried to grow ferns in cold climates.
D. These places once had a colder climate.
Answer:
B. These places once had a warmer climate.
Explanation:
They're fossils meaning they're extremely old therefore the climate they once grew in was suitable for its needs until the climate changed causing them to die.
Transcribed image text: 62. The parathyroid gland is able to sense when blood calcium levels are low and secrete PTH to act on various target tissues to increase calcium levels. This homeostatic control system is important because calcium is necessary for many physiological processes. Which of the following would NOT be impaired by low blood calcium levels? (In other words, which of the following processes do NOT require calcium?) a. Repolarization of a neuron's plasma membrane during action potentials b. Exocytosis of neurotransmitters from axon terminals c. Smooth muscle contraction d. Gland secretions e. Exocytosis of neurotransmitters from varicosities in the ANS 63. What structures are specialized to detect a specific form of energy in the external or internal environment and transduce it into a graded potential? a. Nociceptors b. Photoreceptors c. Rods d. Primary cortex e. Sensory receptors 64. What best describes the concept of dual innervation? a. Most viscera are regulated by both the endocrine system and autonomic nervous system Most viscera only receive innervation by one of the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system Most viscera are innervated by both the somatic motor division and the autonomic nervous system d. Most viscera are innervated by both the parasympathetic division and sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system e. None of the other answers are correct b. C. 65. The resting membrane potential is established mainly from the diffusion of: a. Potassium ions through voltage-gated channels b. Sodium ions through voltage-gated channels c. Sodium ions through leak channels d. Potassium ions through leak channels e. Calcium ions through leak channels 66. The rapid depolarization phase of an action potential is due to the movement of: a. Chloride ions through voltage-gated channels b. Sodium ions through voltage-gated channels c. Potassium ions through voltage-gated channels d. Potassium ions through leak channels e. Sodium ions through leak channels 67. Neurotransmitters (NT) bind to receptors on postsynaptic neurons and cause ion channels to open or close. How does this affect the postsynaptic neuron? a. NT binding changes the membrane potential and create either a depolarizing or hyperpolarizing graded potential b. NT binding will always trigger an action potential C. NT binding will always make the membrane potential more positive and create a depolarizing graded potential d. NT binding will always make the membrane potential more negative and create a hyperpolarizing graded potential e. NT binding activates second messengers only and does not affect membrane potential
62. The process that does NOT require calcium is repolarization of a neuron's plasma membrane during action potentials.
a. Repolarization is the stage of an action potential in which the membrane potential returns to its resting state by either potassium ions flowing out or chloride ions flowing in. The reason for this is that it does not need calcium because the movement of potassium ions is regulated by potassium channels.
b. Exocytosis of neurotransmitters from axon terminals requires calcium ions to enter the axon terminal from the extracellular fluid, leading to fusion of vesicles with the presynaptic membrane and the release of neurotransmitters.
c. Smooth muscle contraction requires calcium ions to bind with calmodulin, which then activates myosin light-chain kinase, resulting in the phosphorylation of myosin.
d. Gland secretions are stimulated by various factors, including calcium ions that play a role in the release of certain hormones.
e. Exocytosis of neurotransmitters from varicosities in the ANS requires calcium ions to enter the varicosity, leading to the fusion of vesicles with the plasma membrane.
63. Sensory receptors are specialized structures that detect a specific form of energy in the external or internal environment and transduce it into a graded potential. Photoreceptors are sensory receptors in the retina that detect light energy, whereas nociceptors are sensory receptors in the skin that detect pain. Rods are photoreceptor cells in the retina that detect light under low-light conditions. The primary cortex is the region of the brain that receives and processes sensory input from sensory receptors.
64. Dual innervation is the concept that most viscera are innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. These two divisions have opposing effects on the same organ, allowing for fine control of the organ's activity. Some examples include the heart, which is innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions, and the gastrointestinal tract, which is innervated by both divisions as well.
a. Most viscera are regulated by both the endocrine system and autonomic nervous system,
b. Most viscera only receive innervation by one of the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system,
c. Most viscera are innervated by both the somatic motor division and the autonomic nervous system.
e. None of the other answers are correct are incorrect.
65. The resting membrane potential is established mainly from the diffusion of potassium ions through leak channels. The resting membrane potential is the voltage difference between the inside and outside of a cell when it is not being stimulated. This potential is established by the movement of ions through ion channels in the plasma membrane. Potassium ions are the most important ions involved in generating the resting membrane potential because the cell is more permeable to potassium than any other ion.
a. Sodium ions through voltage-gated channels,
b. Potassium ions through voltage-gated channels,
c. Sodium ions through leak channels,
d. Calcium ions through leak channels, and
e. Calcium ions through voltage-gated channels are incorrect because only a few ions can diffuse through leak channels, and voltage-gated channels are activated by changes in membrane potential, not by concentration gradients.
66. The rapid depolarization phase of an action potential is due to the movement of sodium ions through voltage-gated channels. The rapid depolarization phase of an action potential is characterized by a rapid increase in membrane potential due to the influx of positively charged ions into the cell. This influx of ions is mainly due to the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels in the plasma membrane. Chloride ions, potassium ions, and sodium ions through leak channels are not responsible for the rapid depolarization phase of an action potential.
67. Neurotransmitters (NT) bind to receptors on postsynaptic neurons and cause ion channels to open or close. This affects the postsynaptic neuron because NT binding changes the membrane potential and creates either a depolarizing or hyperpolarizing graded potential. The effect of NT on the postsynaptic neuron depends on the type of receptor it binds to. Some receptors are ligand-gated ion channels that directly open or close ion channels, while others are G protein-coupled receptors that activate intracellular signaling pathways.
About CalciumCalcium or lime is a chemical element with the symbol Ca and atomic number 20. As an alkaline earth metal, calcium is a reactive metal that forms a dark nitride-oxide layer when exposed to air. Its physical and chemical properties are most similar to its heavier homologs strontium and barium.
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When gene expression is regulated by mechanisms other than the interaction of cis elements and trans factors, the regulation is called:
Answer:
Epigenetics
Explanation:
It is the study of changes in organisms caused by modification of gene expression rather than alteration of the genetic code itself.
Which two conditions are required for cloud formation?
A. high humidity and warm temperatures
B. high humidity and cool temperatures
C. warm tempatures and the presence of particles
D. cool tempatures and the presence of particles
moisture and cooling air
All the radiation absorbed in the Earth's atmosphere is absorbed in the stratosphere.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
OT
OF
vit
Next
Submit
Answer:
False
Explanation:
I literally got it wrong on the quiz
Answer:
The answer is false
Explanation:
i took the test
Yellowing of the bacterial culture growth, and the agar surrounding the culture, on an MSA plate represents what? A)That the bacterial sample was only capable of growing in high salt concentrations. B)That the bacterial sample was capable of growing in high salt concentrations, and can ferment lactose, C)That the bacterial sample was capable of growing in high salt concentrations, and can ferment mannitol. D)That the bacterial sample was capable of growing in salt concentrations, and can ferment mannitol
Yellowing of the bacterial culture growth, and the agar surrounding the culture, on an MSA plate represents that the bacterial sample was capable of growing in high salt concentrations, and can ferment mannitol. The correct option is c.
MSA (Mannitol Salt Agar) is a selective and differential medium commonly used in microbiology to isolate and differentiate bacteria, particularly Staphylococcus species. MSA contains a high concentration of salt, making it selective for bacteria that can tolerate high salt concentrations.
In addition to being selective, MSA is also differential, meaning it allows for the differentiation of bacteria based on their ability to ferment certain carbohydrates. MSA contains mannitol as a fermentable carbohydrate.
If a bacterial sample is capable of growing on MSA and can ferment mannitol, it will produce acid as a byproduct of fermentation. The acid lowers the pH of the agar surrounding the culture, causing a color change indicator (usually phenol red) in the agar to turn yellow. This yellowing of both the bacterial culture growth and the agar surrounding the culture indicates that the bacterial sample is capable of growing in high salt concentrations and can ferment mannitol.
Therefore the correct option is c.
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colchicine is a drug that can prevent chromosomes from separating during cell division and leads to the production of cells with increased chromosome number. assuming that all other aspects of gamete growth and maturation are not impacted and you are working with an organism with two sets of homologous chromosomes that are not identical, what is the most likely outcome of exposing cells to colchicine during meiosis ii?
Exposing cells to colchicine during meiosis II would most likely result in the production of cells with an abnormal number of chromosomes, also known as aneuploidy.
This is because colchicine prevents the separation of chromosomes during cell division, leading to the formation of cells with more than the normal number of chromosomes. Additionally, if the organism has two sets of homologous chromosomes that are not identical, the colchicine would cause a random assortment of chromosomes, resulting in the formation of cells with various abnormal chromosome numbers. Meiosis is a type of cell division that occurs in organisms that sexually reproduce. The process of meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes in the parent cell by half, creating four genetically diverse daughter cells, called haploid cells.
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what is the empirical formula for a compound that contains 17.34% hydrogen and 82.66% carbon?
Answer:
The empirical formula for the compound would be CH.
Explanation:
Check the organelles you think belong only in a
plant cell.
nucleus
chloroplasts
cell wall
if the trp codons in the trpl gene were mutated to encode another amino acid, what would the result be?
The genes trpA-E will not be transcribed if there is no tryptophan present. Only the genes trpE codons and trpD will be transcribed in the absence of tryptophan. The trp repressor would be freed and the mutant leader region would permit complete expression, resulting in the trp operon being produced at its highest levels in the absence of tryptophan.
Genes are transcribed when the repressor protein does not bind to the operator. codons area refers to a DNA sequence that codes for proteins. The operon on the genes chromosome codons contains the five coding areas for the tryptophan biosynthesis enzymes.
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What is the function of enzymes in biological systems?
f Enzymes act as substrates when the
necessary proteins are unavailable.
g Enzymes bond with substrates to
create the new reaction products.
h Enzymes act as catalysts to drive
chemical reactions forward.
j Enzymes act as products to create
new chemical reactions.
Answer:
Enzymes help speed up chemical reactions in the human body. They bind to molecules and alter them in specific ways. They are essential for respiration, digesting food, muscle and nerve function, among thousands of other roles.
Explanation:
Brainliest please?
Answer:
\(\boxed {\boxed {\sf H. \ Enzymes \ act \ as \ catalysts \ to \ drive \ chemical \ reactions \ forward}}\)
Explanation:
Enzymes are catalysts.
They lower the activation energy required to carry out a reaction, which speeds up the reaction. They attach to a molecule known as a substrate at the active site in a specific way.
Enzymes are incredibly important for life. Many reactions wouldn't occur at a rate that can support life, but enzymes allows this to happen. They assist in digesting food, replication genetic material, and more.
So, we know that enzymes are catalysts that make reactions efficient. Therefore, choice H is the best answer.
House finches were found only in western North America until 1939, when a few individuals were released in New York City. These individuals established a breeding population and gradually expanded their range. The western population also expanded its range somewhat eastward, and the two populations have recently come in contact. If the two forms were unable to interbreed when their expanding ranges met, it would be an example of _____.
Group of answer choices
autopolyploidy
allopatric speciation
reinforcement
prezygotic isolation
sympatric speciation
If the two forms of House finches were unable to interbreed when their expanding ranges met, it would be an example of allopatric speciation.
Allopatric speciation occurs when populations of a species become geographically isolated from each other, leading to genetic divergence over time and the formation of separate species. In this scenario, the House finches from western North America and the ones introduced in New York City would have been isolated from each other due to their geographical separation.
During the period of isolation, the two populations may have experienced different selective pressures, genetic mutations, and genetic drift, leading to genetic differences accumulating between them. As a result, if they were unable to interbreed upon coming into contact again, it suggests that reproductive barriers have evolved, preventing successful mating and producing fertile offspring.
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If a dog starts to put its paw down on a sharp stone, the tough skin skin protects underlying structures from damage. Additionally, touch receptors in the skin send sensory signals to the spinal cord. The spinal cord then sends a signal to the muscles to lift the paw rather than continuing to press down. In this scenario, the dog may experience discomfort but avoid injury.
What two body systems are being used to protect the structures beneath the dog's skin and signal the muscles to lift the paw?
A.
integumentary and nervous systems
B.
circulatory and nervous systems
C.
circulatory and lymphatic systems
D.
integumentary and lymphatic systems
PLZZ HELP QUICKKK
The two body systems being used to protect the structures beneath the dog's skin and signal the muscles to lift the paw are the integumentary and nervous systems, which are in option A.
What is the organ system?The dog's response to the sharp stone involves the coordinated action of two body systems: the integumentary system and the nervous system. The integumentary system consists of the skin and its associated structures, including hair, nails, and glands. The skin acts as a protective barrier between the external environment and the underlying tissues, and it has specialized structures, such as tough, keratinized layers in the paw pads, that can withstand pressure and protect the sensitive tissues underneath.
Hence, the two body systems being used to protect the structures beneath the dog's skin and signal the muscles to lift the paw are the integumentary and nervous systems, which are in option A.
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Most plants have different colors in the fall because ________.
chlorophyll production slows
chlorophyll is the main pigment and absorbs green light
carotene production slows
carotene is the main pigment and reflects green light
Use the idea of diffuseition to explain how the smell of perfume travel.
Answer:
Diffusion is a process in which a movement of substance takes place from a high concentration area to a low concentration area due to the random movement of the particles.
The smell of perfume travel because the particles move from their high concentration to low concentration and mix with the gases present in the atmosphere. Diffusion happens in gases more faster than liquids and solids because of the random movement of their particles.
please help......................,
Answer:
Explanation:
in all the question we have to use same technique
in 1 question
weight/force exerted by dorje(F)=1500N
total surface area of sole(A)=0.5m²
we know that,
P=\(\frac{F}{A}\)
or, p=\(\frac{1500}{0.5}\)
∴ P=3000pa
in question 2nd
pressure(P)=40 pa
force exerted by block(F)=80N
we know,
pressure(P)=\(\frac{Force(F)}{Area(a)}\)
area=\(\frac{80}{40}\)
∴area =2m
ow you can do other by yourself