Answers
When planning care for a child with a chronic condition who has been on the nursing unit for three days and is experiencing anxiety and fear at minimal changes, it is important to provide a sense of security, safety, and comfort.
This can be accomplished through the implementation of what is often referred to as ‘nursing presence’ - a combination of being present and available, while also actively working to respond to the patient’s needs. Through meaningful conversation, continual monitoring, and providing the appropriate interventions for distressing symptoms, a nurse can offer a reassuring sense of support and compassion to a child in this vulnerable state.
Such interventions can include supportive talk, distraction techniques, and physical comfort to help them remain relaxed. In addition, being sure to adhere to the same routine to the best of the nurse’s ability is important for a sense of predictability, security, and consistency.
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Related Questions
which of the following factors influence the stress response, which in turn influences the probability of injury?- coping resources - personality
Answers
The following factors influence the stress response, which in turn influences the probability of injury, is coping resources and personality.
What is a basic health?The Basic Health Program gives states the ability to provide more affordable coverage for these low-income residents and improve continuity of care for people whose income fluctuates above and below Medicaid and Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP) levels.
What are the 8 factors of health?Wellness comprises of eight mutually co-dependence dimensions: emotional, physical, occupational, social, spiritual, intellectual, environmental, and financial. If any one of these dimensions is neglected over time, it will adversely affect one's health, well-being, and quality of life.
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A patient is having surgery on his left elbow. Which elbow should be marked by the surgeon as the surgeon faces the patient?
Answers
Answer:
The surgeon should mark the elbow according to the patient's perspective.
Explanation:
Question 12 Marks: 1 People at increase risk for listeriosis areChoose one answer. a. pregnant women b. newborns c. men d. both a and b
Answers
The people at increased risk for listeriosis are both pregnant women and newborns. So the correct option is d.
Pregnant women are more susceptible to listeriosis due to changes in their immune system during pregnancy, which can weaken their ability to fight off infections. Listeriosis during pregnancy can lead to serious complications, such as miscarriage, premature delivery, or infection of the newborn. Newborns, especially those with weakened immune systems, are also at increased risk for listeriosis due to their vulnerable immune status. Other groups at increased risk for listeriosis include elderly individuals, individuals with weakened immune systems, and individuals with certain underlying health conditions. It's important to follow safe food handling practices, such as proper food storage, cooking, and hygiene, to prevent the risk of listeriosis and other foodborne illnesses.
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General procedures ( codes 20005-20999 ) are used for various anatmical strures and not limited to anyone body area. true or false
Answers
Describe how disease affects cognition.
Answers
Answer:
cause a buildup of harmful proteins and other changes in the brain that lead to memory loss and other thinking problems. Stroke can damage blood vessels in the brain and increase risk for vascular dementia.
Explanation:
A healthy 70-year-old woman, admitted to the hospital for a hip replacement surgery, develops an infection after the surgery and recovers more slowly than expected. You notice that she seems uninterested in meals and has eaten only small amounts of food for several days. What steps can be taken to uncover and address problems that the woman might be having with food
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
ames Brantner had always been scrupulous about maintaining his health. He sees his primary care doctor annually, avoids sweets and developed a habit of walking 3.5 miles every other day near his home just outside Harrisburg, Pennsylvania.
So when a routine colonoscopy in 2017 showed evidence of cancer, Brantner, then 76, was stunned. He’d need 12 radiation treatments, followed by surgery to reconstruct his colon. His physician recommended Johns Hopkins Hospital’s colorectal surgeon Susan Gearhart.
“The surgery [which took place last December] was quite extensive,” says Brantner, a retired planning officer for the Pennsylvania Department of Transportation. “Dr. Gearhart was very upfront with me—and compassionate.” He recalls little about his two days in the intensive care unit, but all went well during the surgery and hospital stay. And, though he’s lost 30 pounds and is not yet able to walk long distances, Brantner says he’s getting his appetite back and feels stronger every day.
More than a third of all surgeries in U.S. hospitals—inpatient and outpatient procedures combined—are now performed on people age 65 and over, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. That number, 38 percent, is expected to increase: By 2030, studies predict there will be some 84 million adults in this age group, many of whom will likely need surgery.
Last year, across all five adult Johns Hopkins medical centers, 36 percent of surgeries—48,359—took place in the 65-plus population.
Now, Johns Hopkins Bayview—a longtime hub for comprehensive health care of older adults—is poised to become a “center of excellence” in geriatric surgery. This means the American College of Surgeons will likely recognize Hopkins Bayview as offering a high concentration of expertise and resources devoted to caring for older-adult patients in need of surgery, leading to the best possible outcomes. Hopkins Bayview is one of eight hospitals expecting to merit this distinction, which also recognizes extensive research. (The others, which include community hospitals, veterans’ hospitals and academic centers, are Denver Veterans Affairs Medical Center, Kaiser Permanente Fresno, New York University Winthrop Hospital, University of Alabama, University of Connecticut, University of Rochester, and University Hospital—Rutgers’s—in Newark, New Jersey.)
Gearhart is among the leaders championing the program. Others include Perry Colvin, medical director for Peri-Operative Medicine Services; and Thomas Magnuson, Hopkins Bayview’s chairman of surgery, as well as geriatric nurse practitioners JoAnn Coleman, Jane Marks and Virginia Inez Wendel.
Shifting Perceptions of Aging
While advances in technology and medicine make it easier for people to live longer, healthier lives, no one is sure how factors such as chronological age and chronic disease affect geriatric surgical outcomes.
Consider Podge Reed. In 2011, he was 70 years old, trim and still working as chairman of the board of an oil production company. He played golf regularly and was an avid gardener. Then, during an annual physical, he learned that his lungs were impaired. He’d acknowledged having some recent shortness-of-breath episodes and was diagnosed with lung disease of unknown origin. Within a few months, Reed was placed on a transplant waiting list for a new set of lungs.
Four days after being placed on the transplant waiting list, Reed received a call from the hospital: A 41-year-old organ donor had just died, and the victim’s lungs appeared to be suitable for Reed in blood type and body size. The transplant went well, and Reed remained in the hospital for 56 days—longer than usual for most lung transplant patients because of a lung infection.
prescription or over-the-counter drugs can lead to a false-positive drug test result.
Answers
Multiple drugs may result in erroneous or false positive test findings. Examples include dextromethorphan, certain antidepressants, and NSAIDs.
In brief:The potential for a false positive drug test is a concern for anyone who is undergoing an illicit drug screen, whether it be a urine, hair, saliva, or blood test. In reality, according to some research, 5 to 10% of all drug tests could return false positives while 10 to 15% could return false negatives.
Example: Clinically, a false positive urine drug test can be brought on by a variety of xenobiotics, including dextromethorphan, ibuprofen, imipramine, ketamine, meperidine, diphenhydramine, doxylamine, venlafaxine, bupropion, methylenedioxpyrolvalerone (MDPV), and tramadol.
What is false positive drug test findings?A false positive drug test findings is when a drug screening examination shows the presence of a drug or substance that was not actually taken.
What is antidepressent?Antidepressent is a drug category used to treat clinical depression, anxiety etc.
What is xenabiotics?A xenobiotic is a chemical substance or drug found in an organism that is neither produced naturally nor expected to be present within the organism.
What is dextromethorphan?Dextromethorphan is a drug which is used to relieve cough caused by the common cold, the flu, or other conditions temporarily .
What is Methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV) ?Methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV) is a cathinone group stimulant that inhibits norepinephrine–dopamine reuptake.
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Kirron arrived and took over compressions. To ensure high quality CPR, providers should switch off giving compressions every ---------minutes or sooner if the provider giving compressions is fatigued. My answer was 2 minutes an was marked wrong answer.
Answers
Answer:
2 minutes
Explanation:
You should switch off every two minutes or about 5 cycles of chest compression and breathing, however, if it is a child, it should be about 10 cycles of compressions and breathing. That's weird that it was marked wrong though.
Kirron arrived and took over compressions. To ensure high quality CPR, providers should switch off giving compressions every 2 minutes or sooner if the provider giving compressions is fatigued.
In the context of providing high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), it is recommended to switch the person giving compressions every 2 minutes or sooner if the provider becomes fatigued. CPR is a crucial life-saving technique performed during cardiac arrest to maintain blood flow to vital organs until more advanced medical help can be provided.
Performing effective CPR requires a significant amount of physical effort, and fatigue can quickly set in, affecting the quality and effectiveness of the compressions. By rotating compressors every 2 minutes, it ensures that providers remain fresh and able to deliver strong and consistent chest compressions.
Regular rotation also helps prevent compressions from becoming too shallow or too fast, which can be detrimental to the outcome of the resuscitation efforts. High-quality CPR involves compressions that are at least 2 inches deep and delivered at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute.
It is essential for all providers involved in CPR to communicate effectively, so the switch happens smoothly without any delay in compressions. This teamwork and coordinated effort contribute to the best chances of successful resuscitation and better outcomes for the patient in cardiac arrest. Remember, CPR guidelines may vary slightly depending on the specific guidelines and protocols in different regions or organizations. Always follow the guidelines and training provided by a certified CPR training program or healthcare authority.
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the metaparadigm of nursing consists of environment, health, nursing and person. t or f
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The metaparadigm of nursing is made up of four components: the environment, health, nursing, and the person. Hence, the statement is true.
What is the metaparadigm of nursing?The four nursing metaparadigm are person, health, nursing and the environment. The following are the explanations for each:
The person metaparadigm focuses on the individual who is the beneficiary of treatment.The client's internal and external factors are both included in the metaparadigm environment. This could involve interactions between patients and visitors, in addition to their surroundings.The quality and wellbeing of the patient are referred to in the health metaparadigm. Also, it involves the client's access to health care.The nursing component is the fourth metaparadigm. This relates to nursing and how they are going to use their professional knowledge and abilities when providing care to clients.Learn more about nursing here: brainly.com/question/14465443
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When taking a history on a patient about to have a bladder scan, it is most important to inquire about the patients
Answers
Answer:
Sexual Activity, previous issues and maybe if the patient has had any kidney stones
the nurse provides client teaching about use of levodopa for treatment of parkinson disease. what statement by the client would indicate a good understanding of levodopa?
Answers
"I should take this drug with food to avoid an upset stomach." statement by the client would indicate a good understanding of levodopa. the nurse provides client teaching about use of levodopa for treatment of parkinson disease
Some areas of the brain in people with Parkinson's disease have insufficient dopamine levels. Levodopa enters the brain and aids in replacing the lost dopamine, improving mental and physical performance. Dopamine agonists are a group of drugs that includes levodopa. Levodopa mimics the effect of dopamine, a chemical that naturally occurs in the brain but is deficient in PD patients. It is an indication of an underlying condition like muscle sclerosis or a stroke. Exercises, surgery, or electrical nerve stimulation are all used to address foot drop.
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1 Which of the following government agencies is responsible for requiring the use of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) in the workplace?
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Answers
Answer: B
Explanation: Right
Watch the video below
Nursing Simulation Scenario: Medical Error
Write a 500 word response:
What contributed to medication error in this scenario?
Answers
Answer:
What contributed to the medication error was that the nurse did not check the patient's INR before applying the medication.
Explanation:
Medication errors occur when someone in the medical team fails to evaluate a factor and ends up passing a medication that could not be consumed or applied in the presence of that factor. In the case presented in the video, mentioned in the question above, the patient had a very high INR, in this situation the medication known as Coumadin could not be applied, as it could cause abnormal bleeding and it was difficult to control. However, the nurse did not check the level of INR that the patient was presenting before applying the medication.
PLEASE MAKE CONNECTIONS BETWEEN THE WORDS HELPPPPP!!!!!!!!
In 2-4 sentences demonstrate your understanding of the following terms and how they relate to one another. Be sure not to simply define the terms, but to make connections between them.
license
code of ethics
suspension
revocation
Answers
Answer :
I have got a suspension from the company they even cut my license because I did not follow the code of ethics they said that for the ones that misbehave will fall into revocation of free time .
3. How is narcolepsy with cataplexy similar to and different from REM sleep?
Answers
How does dialysis stimulate the kidneys
Answers
The nurse is caring for a client in the newborn nursery. Which of the following are appropriate actions for the nurse to take that will help to prevent neonatal infection? Select all that apply.
A. Good hand washing technique
B. Keeping the umbilical cord covered with sterile gauze C. Separate gown technique
D. Isolation of infected infants with communicable disease
E. Hand sanitizer with points of contact
Answers
To prevent neonatal infections in the newborn nursery, the nurse should take the following appropriate actions: A) Maintain good hand washing technique, B) Keep the umbilical cord covered with sterile gauze, and C) Use a separate gown technique.
Preventing neonatal infections is crucial in the newborn nursery to ensure the health and well-being of the infants. The nurse should maintain good hand-washing technique (A) to minimize the risk of transferring pathogens from one infant to another. Hand washing with soap and water for at least 20 seconds helps to remove germs effectively. Additionally, the nurse should keep the umbilical cord covered with sterile gauze (B) to protect the area from contamination and reduce the risk of infection. Proper care of the umbilical cord, including keeping it clean and dry, is essential for preventing infection.
Another appropriate action for the nurse to take is using the separate gown technique (C). Wearing a separate gown while caring for each infant helps to prevent cross-contamination between infants and reduces the transmission of infectious agents. This technique ensures that any potentially infectious material from one infant does not come into contact with another. By implementing these preventive measures, the nurse can minimize the risk of neonatal infections in the nursery.
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Throughout the pregnancy, as the uterus enlarges and stretches, the uterine ____________ prepares itself for uterine contractions. In the later stages of pregnancy, the increasing levels of ____________ counteract the calming influence of ____________ on the uterine myometrium, and ____________ the uterine myometrium sensitivity.
Answers
During pregnancy, MYOMETRUM prepares for contractions. In the later stages, increasing levels of ESTROGEN counteract PROGESTERONE on the myometrium and INCREASE its sensitivity. Estrogen is a sex hormone.
Estrogen and progesterone are the main sex hormones that women have.
A woman produces a high level of estrogen during pregnancy in order to improve vascularization of the uterus and placenta.
This hormone (estrogen) promotes the production of receptors for oxytocin hormone in the myometrium.
Estrogen plays a fundamental role in expanding the myometrium during pregnancy and the contractile response before and during labor pregnancy.
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Chlorpheniramine 100 mL
Lidocaine 2 oz
Banana Flavoring 1/2 tsp
Take 10 mL BID
14. How many 1 oz bottles will this solution fill????
Answers
To determine the number of 1 oz bottles the solution will fill, we need to calculate the total volume of the solution and divide it by the volume of each 1 oz bottle.
Given:
Chlorpheniramine: 100 mL
Lidocaine: 2 oz (approximately 59.15 mL)
Banana Flavoring: 1/2 tsp (approximately 2.46 mL)
Dosage: Take 10 mL BID (twice a day)
First, let's calculate the total volume of the solution:
Chlorpheniramine: 100 mL
Lidocaine: 59.15 mL
Banana Flavoring: 2.46 mL
Total volume = Chlorpheniramine + Lidocaine + Banana Flavoring
Total volume = 100 mL + 59.15 mL + 2.46 mL
Total volume ≈ 161.61 mL
Now, let's calculate the number of 1 oz bottles the solution will fill:
1 oz = approximately 29.57 mL
Number of 1 oz bottles = Total volume / Volume of each 1 oz bottle
Number of 1 oz bottles ≈ 161.61 mL / 29.57 mL
Number of 1 oz bottles ≈ 5.46
Therefore, the solution will fill approximately 5.46 (rounded up to 6) 1 oz bottles.
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1. At approximately what date in history was childhood seen as separate from adult life?
A. 1800
B. 1870
C. 1600
D. 1930
Answers
Answers are all implementations. Determine the outcome of each
answer choice. Is it desired?
(1) correct-hypokalemia is not expected after this surgery
(2) used to treat tetany resulting from possible damage to parathyroid glands
(3) essential equipment to provide for airway
(4) needed to maintain a patent airway
Answers
It seems that you have four answer choices related to a medical situation and you'd like to know the outcome of each choice and whether it's desired.
1) Correct - Hypokalemia is not expected after this surgery: This outcome is desired, as hypokalemia (low potassium levels in the blood) can lead to complications such as muscle weakness and heart arrhythmias. The absence of hypokalemia after surgery is a positive result.
2) Used to treat tetany resulting from possible damage to parathyroid glands: This is a desired outcome because treating tetany (involuntary muscle contractions) is important in cases where the parathyroid glands are damaged. Damaged parathyroid glands can cause an imbalance in calcium levels, leading to tetany, which needs to be addressed to prevent complications.
3) Essential equipment to provide for airway: Ensuring the availability of essential equipment to maintain a patent airway is a desired outcome. This ensures that the patient can breathe properly during and after the procedure, preventing respiratory complications and ensuring patient safety.
4) Needed to maintain a patent airway: This is a desired outcome, as maintaining a patent airway ensures that the patient can breathe properly during and after the procedure. Proper airway management is crucial for patient safety and preventing complications related to oxygenation and ventilation.
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The word stem -meter means instrument used to
The word stem electr(o) means
Answers
Answer:
Measure
Electricity
light
radiant energy
sound
Explanation:
Which of the following is superior to the lumbar region
Answers
Answer:
Thoracic region is above the lumbar region
Explanation:
The spinal column has 5 regions-cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral and coccyx.
Sacral promontory is superior to the lumbar region.
The sacral promontory is a bony landmark located at the base of the sacrum, which is the triangular bone situated at the lower part of the spine, below the lumbar region.
In relation to the lumbar region, which consists of the five vertebrae (L1-L5) found in the lower back, the sacral promontory is indeed superior. It is positioned at the top of the sacrum, which is below the lumbar vertebrae.
The sacrum itself is a curved bone that connects to the pelvis and forms the back of the pelvis. It is composed of five fused vertebrae (S1-S5) and is situated beneath the lumbar region.
In summary, when comparing the sacral promontory to the lumbar region, the sacral promontory is positioned higher or superior to the lumbar vertebrae.
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Why is marijuana illegal in so many states?
Answers
Answer:
Majority of pot smokers were minorities, including African Americans, and that marijuana had a negative effect on these “degenerate races,” such as inducing "violence" or causing "insanity"
Explanation:
Janice has a speech disorder which causes her to speak extremely slowly. This is a disorder of
A. articulation
B. language.
C. voice.
D. fluency
Answers
Janice has a speech disorder that causes her to speak extremely slowly. This is a disorder of fluency, which refers to the flow and rhythm of speech. People with fluency disorders may stutter, repeat sounds or words, or have long pauses between words.
Fluency disorders can be caused by a variety of factors, including neurological conditions, developmental delays, or emotional stress. In Janice's case, it is likely that her slow speech is caused by a neurological condition that affects her ability to control the pace of her speech.
It's important to note that fluency disorders are different from other types of speech disorders. Articulation disorders, for example, involve difficulty producing certain sounds or pronouncing words correctly. Language disorders, on the other hand, involve difficulty understanding or using language effectively.
In conclusion, Janice's slow speech is a disorder of fluency, which affects the flow and rhythm of her speech. This is likely caused by a neurological condition that affects her ability to control the pace of her speech.
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According to the structural model of health behavior, what are the four categories of environmental factors that are critical to shaping health behaviors
Answers
Answer:
mind set,
thinking
depression
negative
The availability of protective or hazardous consumer items, physical structures (or product physical attributes), social structures and regulations, media and cultural messaging, and physical structures are all considered to have a significant role in influencing health habits.
What are health behaviors?This psychological paradigm holds that each person has three components, or divisions, called the id, ego, and superego. It is often referred to as a structural hypothesis or approach.
Among the various actions that fall under the category of "health behaviors" include smoking, substance use, food, and physical exercise.
Therefore, sleep, hazardous sexual conduct, seeking out medical care, and following through on prescribed treatments.
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Discuss parenteral and enteral nutrition. Why would these sources of nutrition be utilized in the clinical setting
Answers
Answer:
Enteral nutrition generally refers to any method of feeding that uses the gastrointestinal (GI) tract to deliver part or all of a person's caloric requirements. It can include a normal oral diet, the use of liquid supplements or delivery of part or all of the daily requirements by use of a tube (tube feeding). The site of entry of the tube and tube types will be discussed under "enteral access". Parenteral nutrition refers to the delivery of calories and nutrients into a vein. This could be as simple as carbohydrate calories delivered as simple sugar in an intravenous solution or all of the required nutrients could be delivered including carbohydrate, protein, fat, electrolytes (for example sodium and potassium), vitamins and trace elements (for example copper and zinc). There are many reasons for enteral and parenteral nutrition including GI disorders such as bowel obstruction, short bowel syndrome, Crohn's disease, and ulcerative colitis; as well as certain cancers or in comatose patients. While enteral nutrition is always preferred when technically possible, some people may have a variety of medical issues that make the safe use of the GI tract difficult. Alternatively, their calorie and nutrient needs may not be met by the current level of functioning of their GI tract. That is when parenteral nutrition may be needed to help an individual remain hydrated and possibly to provide calories and other nutrients to allow for growth and development or maintenance of physical well-being and function. Enteral nutrition generally refers to any method of feeding that uses the gastrointestinal (GI) tract to deliver part or all of a person's caloric requirements. It can include a normal oral diet, the use of liquid supplements or delivery of part or all of the daily requirements by use of a tube (tube feeding). The site of entry of the tube and tube types will be discussed under "enteral access". Parenteral nutrition refers to the delivery of calories and nutrients into a vein. This could be as simple as carbohydrate calories delivered as simple sugar in an intravenous solution or all of the required nutrients could be delivered including carbohydrate, protein, fat, electrolytes (for example sodium and potassium), vitamins and trace elements (for example copper and zinc). There are many reasons for enteral and parenteral nutrition including GI disorders such as bowel obstruction, short bowel syndrome, Crohn's disease, and ulcerative colitis; as well as certain cancers or in comatose patients. While enteral nutrition is always preferred when technically possible, some people may have a variety of medical issues that make the safe use of the GI tract difficult. Alternatively, their calorie and nutrient needs may not be met by the current level of functioning of their GI tract. That is when parenteral nutrition may be needed to help an individual remain hydrated and possibly to provide calories and other nutrients to allow for growth and development or maintenance of physical well-being and function.
PLZ MARK BRAINLIEST IF IT HELPS <3
Explanation:
The physician has ordered Tigan (trimethobenzamide) 50 mg IM. On hand you have a 20 mL vial that contains 100 mg/mL. How many mL will you give?
Answers
Answer:.5
Explanation:
The physician has ordered Tigan ( trimethobenzamide) 50 mg IM. On hand if i have 20 ml vial that contain 100 mg/ml than 5 ml of Tigan is given to the patient.
What is tigan ( trimethobenzamide) ?Tigan (Trimethobenzamide) is an antiemetic suggested for the treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting, and for nausea associated with gastroenteritis.
The condition in which tigan is discontinued in the case in which lack of efficacy.
The mechanism of action of Tigan is determined in animals is obscure, but may involve the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), an area in the medulla oblongata through which emetic impulses are conveyed to the vomiting centre.
Therefore,the physician has ordered Tigan ( trimethobenzamide) 50 mg IM. The condition in which tigan is discontinued in the case in which lack of efficacy. On hand if i have 20 ml vial that contain 100 mg/ml than 5 ml of Tigan is given to the patient.
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quando falamos do processo de administracao absorcao e biotransformacao biodisponibilidade e excrecao do farmaco estamos falando de qual divisao da farmacologia
Answers
Answer:
Farmacocinética
Explanation:
Quando falamos sobre o processo de administração, absorção, biotransformação, biodisponibilidade e excreção de um fármaco, estamos nos referindo à farmacocinética.
A farmacocinética é uma divisão da farmacologia que se concentra no estudo do movimento dos fármacos no corpo humano, incluindo a absorção, distribuição, metabolismo e eliminação dos fármacos. Esses processos determinam a concentração do fármaco no local de ação, bem como a duração e intensidade da resposta farmacológica.
Em resumo, a farmacocinética se preocupa com o que o corpo faz com o fármaco e como ele se move através do organismo.
2.External jugular vein ends by opening into, *
Internal jugular vein
subclavian vein
Brachiocephalic vein
superior venacava
Answers
Answer:
External jugular vein ends by opening into
subclavian vein